DU LLB 2022 Solved Paper

DU LLB 2022 Solved Paper

Find DU LLB 2022 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Owing to the increasing competition day by day, getting into your dream college is not that easy. Practice the DU LLB past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect; thus, solving the past year’s paper will give you an edge over your competitors.

Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

Find the solved DU LLB paper below.


Duration of exam: 2 hours

Maximum marks: 400

Negative marking: 1

1. Read the passage and answer the question:

At the outset, it is important to recognize that positivism is not an exclusively jurisprudential approach. Its central claim is the view that the only genuine knowledge is scientific knowledge which emerges only from the positive confirmation of theory by the application of rigid scientific methods. Its originator was the nineteenth-century thinker, Auguste Comte (generally regarded as the founder of sociology) whose ideas influenced the so-called Vienna Circle of logical positivism that developed in the early years of the twentieth century. Its members sought to combine empiricism and rationalism. In the 1920s and 1930s the movement grew in importance and spread to Britain and the United States. Its fundamental principles included an antagonism towards metaphysics, particularly ontology and a priori propositions.

Legal positivism attempts to identify the key features of the legal system that are posited by legislators, judges, and so on. Yet the theory has generated substantial misunderstanding. Indeed the confusion is so acute that, in the view of at least one distinguished writer, the term ‘legal positivism ought to be abandoned altogether. It is, however, unlikely that, whatever the extent of the ambiguity surrounding the phrase, it will cease being a central term of art in jurisprudence. Having a clear idea of what it is the positivists say about law and how this differs from the other views is therefore essential.

While, in general terms, it is fair to describe certain jurists as ‘positivists (Bentham, Austin, Kelsen, Raz, and Hart himself are most important), students are sometimes too quick to treat them as if they belonged to a largely undifferentiated ‘school’ which adheres to certain general views about the law. At a fairly high level of abstraction, this is not entirely inaccurate. But it is important to recognize that not only do each of these writers pose different questions, but their method of enquiry and general objectives are often as different as the features they share. If one were to express the highest common factor among these writers it would probably be their emphasis on describing law by reference to formal rather than moral criteria. In their pursuit of a scientific analysis of law and legal rules, it is their contention that the law as laid down (positum) should be kept separate for the purpose of study and analysis from the law as it ought morally to be.

Q. 1. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the above passage?

a) The Vienna Circle

b) Sociology and law

c) Moral Criteria for Law

d) Legal positivism

Answer: d

Q. 2. According to the above passage, the member of the Vienna circle of logical positivism sought to combine:

a) Law and morals

b) Empiricism and rationalism

c) Scientific knowledge positive confirmation of theory

d) Abstract notices and general views about the law

Answer: b

Q. 3. Which of the following is NOT a synonym for antagonism?

a) rancor

b) antipathy

c) bonhomie

d) gall

Answer: c

Q. 4. Which of the following is a synonym for ‘a priori’?

a) Deductive

b) Illogical

c) Instinctive

d) Categorical

Answer: a

Q. 5. According to the author of the above passage:

‘Legal positivism’ will certainly cease being a central term of art in jurisprudence, and ought to be abandoned altogether due to its neglect by legislators, judges and jurists

As the theory has generated substantial misunderstanding about ‘legal positivism’, it will most likely cease being a central term of art in jurisprudence

In spite of the ambiguity surrounding legal positivism, it is unlikely that it will cease being a central term of art in jurisprudence.

Though it is unlikely that ‘legal positivism’ will cease being a central term of art in jurisprudence in the near future, the confusion is so acute that it is likely to be abandoned in the distant future.

Ans. c

Q. 6. What is the antonym for practical?

a) Unpractical

b) Impractical

c) Impractical

d) Mispractical

Answer: Both a and b

Q. 7. Choose the correct meaning of the idiom Let the cat out of the bag:

a) To make the situation worse

b) An event that happens infrequently

c) To reveal a secret accidentally

d) To do sometime badly

Answer: c

Q. 8. From the given options, choose the most logical order of sentences to form a paragraph:

Ali’s father began his life, like many a poet who walked the earth before him, with great optimism. It was as if his only achievement was to have given him a grandson, an heir. What hurt him the most was how his father had virtually written him off. However, over the years, even a self-published collection of romantic couplets financed by Khan Sahib could neither lift his spirits nor his fortunes.

Choose the correct answer from below mentioned options

a) A, B, C, D

b) D, C, B, A

c) B, A, C, D

d) A, D, C, B

Answer: d

Q. 9. Chose the correct option in line with the example Fish: School

a) Lion: Pride

b) Raven: Heard

c) Dog: Terrier

d) Goat: Zeal

Answer: a

Q. 10. Choose the antonym for harmonious:

a) Sonorous

b) Discordant

c) Concordant

d) Balanced

Answer: b

Q. 11. Chose the correct one word for the phrase – an office for which no salary is paid;

a) Hospitality

b) Gratitude

c) Honorary

d) Gratuity

Answer: c

Q. 12. Chose the correct meaning of the word ‘Inalienable’;

a) Not capable of being transferred

b) Anything that can be avoidable

c) Capable of being transferred

d) Extremely unimportant

Answer: a

Q. 13. Chose the antonym for Conducive:

a) Unimaginable

b) Unfavourable

c) Unaccountable

d) Unclear

Answer: b

Q. 14. What does ‘primogeniture’ mean?

a) piece of admissible evidence in court.

b) Hearsay evidence.

c) The system by which the eldest son inherits all of his parent’s property.

d) Formal accusation in a trial.

Answer: c

Q. 15. What is the meaning of the phrase “virtually set the stage”?

a) To decrease in extent or quantity.

b) To safe keep political secrets,

c) To increase the interest of onlookers.

d) To ensure the probability of occurrence of an event

Answer: d

Q. 16. If A is to the south of B, C is to the east of B, then what direction is A with respect to C?

a) North-east

b) South-west

c) North-west

d) South-east

Answer: b

Q. 17. Payal earns double in the month of December as compared to the other months of the year. What part of her entire year’s earnings does she earns in December?

a) 2/11

b) 3/14

c) 2/13

d) 1/6

Answer: c

Q. 18. If in a certain code, decry is written as WVXIB, then “praise” would be written as:





Answer: a

Q. 19. If 1 × 5 =6, 2 × 5 = 12, 3 × 5 = 18, 4 × 5 = 24 then what is the value of 9 × 5 ?

a) 45

b) 72

c) 54

d) 63

Answer: c

Q. 20. It was a Saturday on 1st January of the year 2011. What was the day on 1st January of the year 2014?

a) Tuesday

b) Thursday

c) Monday

d) Wednesday

Answer: d

Q. 21. Choose the correct alternative from the options given below to replace the question mark: Bibliophobia: Books

Then, Pyrophobia: ?

a) Fire

b) Paper

c) Pythons

d) Freedom

Answer: a

Q. 22. Pointing to a woman, a man says, “Her mother is the only daughter-in-law of the grandfather of my son. How is the woman related to the man?

a) Wife

b) Mother

c) Daughter

d) Sister

Answer: c

Q. 23. If “FAVOUR’ is written as ‘EBUPTS’ in a certain code, then ‘DANGER’ will be written as:





Answer: b

Q. 24. In the following alphanumeric series, choose the correct letter which can replace the question mark: B, 25, D, 23, G, 19, K, 13,?

a) P

b) L

c) N

d) Q

Answer: a

Q. 25. Heena, who is Vijay’s daughter, says to Lucky, “Your mother Rajni is the younger sister of my father, who is the third child of Jay”. How is Jay related to Lucky?

a) Father-in-Law

b) Father

c) Maternal Uncle

d) Grandfather

Answer: d

Q. 26. Under Article 12 of the Constitution of India ‘State’ includes:

a) The Government of India and the Parliament

b) The Government of India and the Parliament and the Legislature of each State

c) The Government of India and the Parliament and the Government and the Legislature of each State and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India

d) The Parliament and the Legislature of each State

Answer: c

Q. 27. Union territory according to the Constitution of India means any Union territory:

a) As specified in the First Schedule and Sixth Schedule

b) As specified in the First Schedule and Seventh Schedule

c) As specified in the First Schedule, Seventh Schedule and Tenth Schedule

d) As specified in the First Schedule and includes any other territory comprised within the territory of India but not specified in that Schedule

Answer: d

Q. 28. Who among the following was the Chairman of the ‘Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights, Minorities and Tribal and Excluded Areas of the Constituent Assembly of India?

a) Rajendra Prasad

b) Jawaharlal Nehru

c) B.R. Ambedkar

d) Vallabhbhai Patel

Answer: d

Q. 29. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and other one labelled as Reason R

Assertion A:

Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is celebrated in India on 26th November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India.

Reason R:

On 26th November 1949, the Constitution of India came into force.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

b) Both A and R are false

c) A is true, but R is false

d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: c

Q. 30. The primary remedy under the Law of Torts is:

a) Unliquidated Damages

b) Liquidated Damages

c) Imprisonment

d) Fine

Answer: a

Q.31. Which of the following is an example of trespass?

a) Arjun walks in front of Saket’s house, staying on the sidewalk.

b) Rishabh enters Akash’s land without Akash’s permission and kills a hen belonging to Akash.

c) George walks into Radiant’s house, who has invited him over for lunch.

d) Riya takes a lift in Priyanka’s car for going to college.

Answer: b

Q.32. Match List I with List II

List I

List II

A. Valid contract

I. Contract which ceases to be enforceable by law

B. Voidable contract

II. Legally enforceable with legal obligations

C. Void contract

III. Valid till avoided by the party entitled to do so

D. Illegal contract

IV. Contract opposed to public policy

Choose the correct answer, as per the Law of Contract, from the options given below:





Answer: b

Q. 33. When two contracting parties agree as regards the subject-matter of the contract at the same time and in the same sense, it is called:

a) Uberrimae fidei

b) Quid pro quo

c) Nudam pactum

d) Consensus ad idem

Answer: d

Q. 34. Sameer is enfeebled by cancer. He is induced by Newton, his medical attendant, to pay him an unreasonable sum for his professional services. According to the Law of Contract, Newton has obtained the consent by:

a) Fraud

b) Mistake

c) Undue influence

d) Coercion

Answer: c

Q. 35. X contested and won election to the House of the People as an independent candidate. Three months later, he joined the political party in power. As per the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India:

a) X will be disqualified for being a Member of Parliament.

b) X will not be disqualified for being a Member of Parliament, as he won the election as an independent candidate.

c) X will not be disqualified for being a Member of Parliament. but he cannot be appointed as a Minister in the Cabinet.

d) X will not be disqualified for being a Member of Parliament, as he joined a political party within six months of being elected as a Member of Parliament after contesting as an independent candidate.

Answer: a

Q. 36. Which celebrated case laid down the doctrine of basic structure in India?

a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461

b) M.R. Balaji v. State of Mysore, AIR 1963 SC 649

c) S. Vardarajan v. State of Madras, AIR 1965 SC 942

d) State of Madras v. Champakam Dorairajan, AIR 1951 SC 226

Answer: a

Q. 37. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by:

a) Both Houses of Parliament in a joint session

b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

c) Either House of Parliament

d) Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha

Answer: c

Q. 38. The jurist, who refused to treat international law as a proper law and described it as mere positive morality, is

a) Jeremy Bentham

b) Hans Kelsen

c) John Austin

d) Hugo Grotius

Answer: c

Q. 39. Match List I with List II

List I

List II

Articles in the Constitution of India

Aspects covered

A. Article 23

1. Right to Life and Liberty

B. Article 32

II. Freedom of Religion

C. Article 21

III. Prohibition of traffic in human beings

D. Article 25

IV. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


A-III, B-IV, C-1, D-II


A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III Ans. b

Q. 40. The defendant, a mill owner, had employed independent contractors to build a reservoir on his land to meet water needs for his mill. During the course of construction, the independent contractors discovered some old shafts but they ignored them and completed the reservoir. When water was filled in the reservoir, it burst through the old shafts, and adjoining mine of the plaintiff was flooded and damage was caused. Though independent contractors were negligent here, however, the plaintiff sought to sue the mill-owner, who was not found to be negligent. The foregoing facts shall invite the application of the principle of:

a) Strict liability

b) Composite liability

c) Absolute liability

d) Contributory negligence

Answer: a

Q. 41. The law of torts consists of a number of specific rules prohibiting certain kinds of harmful activity and leaving all the residue outside the sphere of legal responsibility. It consists of separate categories of wrongs, each described by a different name. Just like the house of pigeon consists of many holes that are meant for each pigeon, and in which, each comes and sits in its own hole”. The foregoing proposition of law of torts referred to as the Pigeon Hole theory, was propounded by:

a) Percy Henry Winfield

b) John William Salmond

c) Frederick Pollock

d) Arthur Lehman Goodhart

Answer: b

Q. 42. The Competition Act, 2002 was passed by the Parliament replacing The:

a) Copyright Act, 1957

b) Trade Mark Act, 1999

c) The Companies Act, 1956

d) The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act. 1969

Answer: d

Q. 43. In Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, (2015) 5 SCC 1 the Supreme Court of India:

a) Declared the right to go abroad

b) Declared the right to education

c) Struck down section 377 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

d0 Struck down section 66-A of the Information Technology Act, 2000

Answer: d

Q. 44. A Hindu married man, who has a Hindu wife living, marries a Muslim woman. Under the Indian Penal Code. 1860, he is guilty of the offence of

a) Adultery

b) Bigamy

c) Mischief

d) Criminal breach of trust

Answer: b

Q. 45. Right to access to the internet has been discussed in:

a) Anuradha Bhasin v. Union of India, (2020) 3 SCC 637

b) Indira Jaising v. Supreme Court of India, (2017) 9 SCC 766

c) Public Interest Foundation v. Union of India, (2015) 11 SCC 433

d) People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, (2019) 15 SCC 748

Answer: a

Q. 46. According to the Prohibition of Child Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 2021 the proposed legal age of marriage for girls is

(a) 18 years

(b)16 years

(c) 21 years

(d) 23 years

Answer: c

Q. 47. As per The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, can a Hindu male marry a second time with the written consent of his living wife?

a) Yes

b) No

c) Yes, if wife is major

d) Yes, if wife is unwilling to give birth to any child

Answer: b

Q. 48. Under Muslim Law, marriage is a

a) Contract

b) Sacrament

c) Tradition

d) Social need

Answer: a

Q. 49. Which among the following is NOT a secondary source of Muslim Law?

a) Qiyas

b) Custom

c) Judicial Decision

d) Istihsan

Answer: a

Q. 50. An arrested person is required to be produced before the nearest Magistrate:

a) Immediately after the arrest

b) Within 12 hours of such arrest

c) Within 24 hours of such arrest

d) Within 24 hours of such arrest excluding the time necessary for the journey from the place of arrest to the court of the Magistrate

Answer: d

Q. 51. The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 was drafted by:

a) Henry S. Maine

b) James F. Stephen

c) John Jay

d) John H. Wigmore

Answer: b

Q. 52. Which court stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Sudhir Jadhav in May 2017?

a) United Nations Security Council

b) International Criminal Court

c) Supreme Court of Pakistan

d) International Court of Justice

Answer: d

Q. 53. Which of the following offences in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been declared unconstitutional in Joseph Shine v. Union of India, AIR 2018 SC 4898?

a) Bigamy

b) Unnatural Offences

c) Adultery

d) Marital Rape

Answer: c

Q. 54. Match List I with List II

List I

List II

Offence under The Indian Penal, Code, 1860


A. Theft

I. Fear of injury

B. Extortion

II. Deception and inducement

C. Cheating

III. Dishonest conversion

D. Criminal Misappropriation

IV. Offence against possession

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

A-1, B-II, C-III, D-IV




Answer: b

Q. 55. Z’s will contains these words-1 direct that all my remaining property be equally divided between X, V and H.” X dishonestly scratches out Y’s name, intending that it may be believed that the whole property was left to himself and H. X has committed:

a) Cheating

b) Criminal breach of trust

c) Forgery

d) Criminal misappropriation

Answer: c

Q. 56. Which of the following is NOT a ground mentioned under Article 16 of the Constitution of India?

a) Race

b) Caste

c) Sex

d) Origin

Answer: d

Q. 57. According to the Constitution of India, the executive power of the Union shall be vested in:

a) the President

b) the Prime Minister

c) the Union Council of Ministers

d) the Union Home Minister

Answer: a

Q. 58. Right to sleep as a Fundamental Right has been discussed in which of the following cases?

a) Mahmood Nayyar Azam v. State of Chhatisgarh, (2012) 8 SCC1

b) Ramlila Maidan Incident, In re. (2012) 5 SCC 1

c) Aruna R. Shanbaug v. Union of India. (2011) 4 SCC 454

d) Nisha Priya Bhatia v. Union of India, (2020)13 SCC 56

Answer: b

Q. 59. As per the Constitution of India, an Ordinance promulgated by the President shall cease to operate at the expiration of

a) Six weeks from the re-assembly of Parliament.

b) Two weeks from the re-assembly of Parliament.

c) Four weeks from the re-assembly of Parliament.

d) One week from the re-assembly of Parliament.

Answer: a

Q. 60. X tutors his parrot to recite an offer, and, later in the day sends this parrot to Y. After reaching Y, the parrot starts repeating the offer. Under the Law of Contract:

a) It is an invitation to offer

b) It is a valid offer

c) It is an invalid offer

d) It is a cross offer

Answer: c

Q. 61. Under the Law of Contract, call for auction, price catalogue and advertisements in local newspapers are examples of

a) Invitation to offer

b) Offer

c) Proposal

d) Acceptance

Answer: a

Q. 62. The doctrine of frustration of contract as enshrined under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 refers to:

a) an invalid contract since inception.

b) a contract that has subsequently become impossible to perform.

c) the party to the contract which receives advantage, has no obligation to restore it to the party from whom he received it.

d) a contract, which becomes impossible or unlawful due to act which could have been prevented by the promisor.

Answer: b

Q. 63. Under the Indian Contract Act. 1872 an agreement by way of wager is:

a) void

b) voidable

c) contingent contract

d) quasi-contract

Answer: a

Q. 64. X, a male, and Y, a female, married under the Special Marriage Act. 1954. A month after their marriage, Y was forcibly taken and kept at a secret place by her family, who were unhappy with the marriage. Aggrieved by the police inaction in tracing Y for the past three months, X decides to file a writ petition before the High Court. Select the appropriate writ which can be issued in this case:

a) Writ of Quo warranto

b) Writ of Habeas corpus

c) Writ of Prohibition

d) Writ of Certiorari

Answer: b

Q. 65. Which of the following appointments is NOT made by the President of India?

a) Chief of the Army Staff

b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India

d) Chief Justice of India

Answer: b

Q. 66. The Supreme Court of India recognised the Third Gender in:

a) Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India (2018) 10 SCC 1.

b) Suresh Kumar Koushal v. Naz Foundation, (2014) 1 SCC 1.

c) Common Cause (A Registered Society) v. Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1.

d) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India, (2014) 5 SCC 438.

Answer: d

67. In Public International Law, the psychological element on the part of a State while acting with a feeling that it is fulfilling a legal obligation is called

a) Opinio juris sive necessitatis

b) Mens rea

c) Jus cogens

d) Protocol

Answer: a

Q. 68. The judges of the International Court of Justice are elected by

a) The Secretary General of the United Nations (UN) in consultation with five permanent members of the UN Security Council

b) The UN Security Council only

c) Both the UN General Assembly and the UN Security Council

d) The UN General Assembly only

Answer: c

Q. 69. A treaty is intended by the parties to be binding only as long as there is no fundamental change in the circumstances which prevailed at the time of the conclusion of the treaty. This doctrine is referred to as

a) Erga omnes

b) Rebus sic stantibus

c) Jus dispositivum

d) Jus voluntarium

Answer: b

Q. 70. Match List I with List II

List I

List II

Articles of the Constitution of India


A. Article 24

I. No person accused of any offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself

B. Article 29(2)

II. No children below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any hazardous employment

C. Article 30(1)

III. All minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall

have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice

D. Article 20(3)

IV. No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational

institution maintained by the State, or receiving State aid, on the grounds of religion, race, caste language or any of them

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.


A-11, B-I, C-III, D-IV



Answer: d

Q. 71. The allocation of seats in the Council of States is contained in which Schedule to the Constitution of India?

a) Third Schedule

b) Fourth Schedule

c) Fifth Schedule

d) Sixth Schedule

Answer: b

Q. 72. Under the Constitution of India, which of the following is NOT correct regarding the Governor of a State?

a) (S) he can recommend imposition of President’s Rule in that State

b) (S) he has the power to issue ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session

c) (S)he has the power to reserve a Money Bill for the consideration of the President of India

d) (S)he does not have the power to commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence

Answer: d

Q. 73. X, living in Delhi, dies of a sudden heart attack. His servant Y, informs X’s family members living in London about X’s death, but before they arrive in India, Y takes away an expensive watch of X from X’s cupboard. Under the Indian Penal Code 1860, Y has:

a) committed the offence of theft

b) committed the offence of dishonest misappropriation of property

c) committed the offence of criminal breach of trust

d) committed no offence, since his salary for the month was due

Answer: b

Q. 74. Articles 15(6) and 16(6), providing for reservation in favour of certain economically weaker sections of citizens, were inserted in the Constitution of India through which of the following amendments:

a) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act 2021

b) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act 2019

c) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act. 2019

d) The Constitution (One Hundred and Second Amendment) Act 2018

Answer: c

Q. 75. Under the Law of Torts, the publication of a false and defamatory statement about another person in a newspaper tending to injure that person’s reputation without lawful justification or excuse amounts to:

a) Slander

b) Libel

c) Intimidation

d) Insult

Answer: b

Q. 76. The renaming of the Department of Disinvestment (Government of India) was announced in the 2016- 17 budget session. What is the name of this department currently?

a) Department of Investment and Disinvestment

b) Department of Public Investment

c) Department of Investment and Public Asset Management

d) Department of Disinvestment Management

Answer: c

Q. 77. For the purpose of providing and regulating credit and other facilities for the promotion and development of economic activities in rural areas with a view to promoting integrated rural development and securing prosperity of rural areas, the Government of India established:

a) Industrial Development Bank of India

b) Central Bank of India

c) Reserve Bank of India

d) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development

Answer: d

Q. 78. Blue carbon means:

a) Carbon stored in the atmosphere

b) Carbon stored in land and soil

c) Carbon stored in coastal and marine ecosystem

d) Blue coloured paper

Answer: c

Q. 79. Match List I with List II

List 1

List II

A. Carbon credit

I. Sunderlal Bahuguna

B. Illegal trade in wildlife

II. London Declaration

C. Chipko movement

III Kyoto Protocol

D. Father of ecology in India

IV. Ramdeo Misra

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:





Answer: b

Q. 80. On which river is the Baglihar Dam constructed?

a) Beas

b) Ravi

c) Chenab

d) Jhelum

Answer: c

Q. 81. Match List I with List II

List 1

List II



A. Lonar

I. Uttarakhand

B. Bhimtal

II. Odisha

C. Tso Moriri

III. Maharashtra

D. Chilika

IV. Ladakh

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:





Answer: c

82. A student wanting to study clouds would refer to which section of books in a library?

a) Zoology

b) Neology

c) Neurology

d) Nephology

Answer: d

Q. 83. Arrange the following in chronological order.

a) Cripps Mission

b) Simon Commission

c) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

d) Cabinet Mission

Choose the correct option from below

a) A, C, D, B

b) B, C, A, D

c) C, B, A, D

d) D, B, A, C

Answer: b

Q. 84. Which Article of the Constitution of India was termed as its ‘heart and soul’ by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar?

a) Article 32

b) Article 21

c) Article 14

d) Article 246

Answer: a

Q. 85. Which of the following statements is NOT true about Mahatma Gandhi?

a) He wrote the book “Hind Swaraj.

b) He became the President of the Indian National Congress at its Belgaum session in 1924.

c) He was in Delhi with Jawaharlal Nehru to celebrate the independence of India on 15 August, 1947.

d) He gave the slogan of ‘do or die”.

Answer: c

Q. 86. Who among the following were awarded the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award 2021?

a) Mithali Raj

b) Shikhar Dhawan

c) Sunil Chhetri

d) Deepak Punia

Choose the correct options given below

A and C

A, B and C

B and D

A and D

Answer: A

Q. 87. Who was the first Chief Justice of the High Court of Delhi?

a) Justice S.K. Kapur

b) Justice K.S. Hegde

c) Justice H.R. Khanna

d) Justice LD. Dua

Answer: b

Q. 88. What are the grounds for the proclamation of national emergency in India?

a) War, external aggression and internal disturbances.

b) War, external aggression and armed rebellion.

c) War, armed rebellion and natural calamities.

d) External aggression, natural calamities and internal disturbances.

Answer: b

Q. 89. Who authored the book ‘Patel: A Life?

a) Tushar Gandhi

b) Gopalkrishna Gandhi

c) Rajmohan Gandhi

d) Arun Manilal Gandhi

Answer: c

Q. 90. The book – A Constructive Parliamentarian is written by:

a) Atal Bihari Vajpayee

b) Manmohan Singh

c) Somnath Chatterjee

d) Shashi Tharoor

Answer: a

Q. 91. Which of the following is NOT true about the Nobel Prize?

a) It was set up under the will of Alfred Nobel.

b) It is given in the fields of Peace, Literature, Physics, Chemistry, Medicine, and Economics

c) On December 10, 1901, the Nobel Prizes were awarded for the first time in Stockholm.

d) Nadia Murad is the youngest Nobel Prize laureate.

Answer: d

Q. 92. Which of the following is incorrect about the Bharat Ratna?

a) It is India’s highest civilian award.

b) It has been awarded only to Indian citizens.

c) The youngest Bharat Ratna awardee is Sachin Tendulkar.

d) It was instituted in the year 1954

Answer: b

Q. 93. Which of the following is NOT a member country of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO)?

a) Croatia

b) Austria

c) Canada

d) Luxembourg

Answer: b

94. When did the Russia-Ukraine war begin in 2022?

a) 22 February, 2022

b) 24 February, 2022

c) 27 February, 2022

d) 28 February, 2022

Answer: b

Q. 95. Arrange the following in chronological order:

a) Dandi March

b) Rowlatt Act

c) Simon Commission

d) Morley-Minto Reforms

Choose the correct option –





Answer: c

Q. 96. The tagline ‘Invaluable Treasures of Incredible India is associated with:

a) Copyright

b) Geographical Indications

c) Industrial Designs

d) Patents

Answer: b

Q. 97. Who among the following did NOT serve as the Vice President of India?

a) Zakir Hussain

b) M. Hidayatullah

c) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

d) Gopal Swarup Pathak

Answer: c

Q. 98. Which Amendment to the Constitution of India pertains to the Goods and Services Tax?

a) The Constitution (Ninety-Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014

b) The Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016

c) The Constitution (One Hundred and Fourth Amendment) Act. 2019

d) The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019

Answer: b

Q. 99. In the context of civil aviation, which is the first airport in India to get Disabled Aircraft Recovery Equipment (DARE)?

a) Cochin International Airport, Kochi

b) Indira Gandhi International Airport, New Delhi

c) Chahttrapati Shivaji International Airport. Mumbai

d) Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru

Answer: d

Q. 100. Where was the Group of Seven (G7) summit held in June, 2022?

a) Germany

b) France

c) Italy

d) Japan

Answer: a

Important Links

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

Law Aspirants – Ultimate Test Prep Destination

Source link

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *