Download Bihar Judiciary Prelims Examination 2013 Solved Paper Pdf

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Bihar Judiciary Prelims Paper 2013

Paper 1: General Studies

Q.1 In 1946, there was a mutiny of Indian naval ratings in

[A] Calcutta

[B] Madras

[C] Vishakhapatnam

[D] Bombay

Q.2) Which commission recommended the Famine Code for India?

[A] Campbell Commission

[B] MacDonnell Commission

[C] Strachey Commission

[D] Lyall Commission

Q.3) What proposal was made in the ‘August Offers’ of 1940?

[A] Complete Independence for India gradually

[B] Dominion Status

[C] Provincial Autonomy

[D] Representative Government at the Centre

Q.4) Who had made English language as a medium of education?

[A] Lord Macaulay, 1838

[B] Sir Charles Wood, 1854,

[C] Lord Clive, 1857

[D] Lord Curzon, 1899

Q.5) In 1946 AD, the Interim Government was headed by

[A] Liyakat Ali

[B] Jawaharlal Nehru

[C] Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

[D] Lord Mountbatten

Q.6) What was established by Indian Association to increase national spirit thereby playing an important role?

[A] Indian National Congress

[B] Bengal British Indian Society

[C] Indian national Conference

[D] British India Association

Q.7) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the editor of

[A] Samvad Kaumudi

[B] Navashakti

[C] Yugantar

[D] Vande Mataram

Q.8) Satya Sodhak Sam al was founded by

[A] Shahuji Maharaj

[B] B.R Ambedkar

[C] Jyotiba Phule

[D] Jagjivan Ram

Q.9) During the. British rule, according to which Act, there was permission to arrest without fair trial?

[A] Rowlatt Act

[B] Sedition Act, 1870

[C] Hindu Code Bill

[D] Ebert Bill

Q.10) Who had led the Santhal Revolt?

[A] Sido and Kanhu

[B] Dolta Ramosi and Birsa

[C] Jatra Bhagat and Jundu Bhagat

[D] Motilal Tejavat and Surendra Sai

Q.11) The author, who described the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence, was

[A] Ashok Mehta

[B] R.C. Majumdar

[C] S.N. Sen

[D] V.D. Savarkar

Q.12) The leaders of the Home Rule Movement borrowed the term ‘Home Rule’ from a similar movement in

[A] Ireland

[B] Scotland

[C] United States of America

[D] Canada

Q.13) Rabindranath Tagore gave up his Knighthood because of

[A] Jallianwala Bagh Massacre

[B] brutal suppression of Civil Disobedience Movement

[C] execution of Bhagat Singh

[D] Chauri-Chaura incident

Q.14) Who was the founder of Anusheelan Samiti in Bengal?

[A] Pramatha Mitra

[B] Aurobindo Ghosh

[C] Prafulla Chaki

[D] Khudiram Bose

Q.15) Who was the first woman president of Indian National Congress?

[A] Sarojini Naidu

[B] Annie Besant

[C] Sucheta Kriplani

[D] Madame Cama

Q.16) Who was the author of Economic History of India (1901)?

[A] R.C. Dutta

[B] M. Vishveswaraiya

[C] N.G. Ranga

[D] D.R. Gadgil

Q.17) Who had presided over the first All India Trade Union Congress session?

[A] M.N. Joshi

[B] M.N. Roy

[C] Lala Lajpat Rai

[D] S.A. Dange

Q.18) Who was the founder of Hindu College at Calcutta?

[A] Raja Ram Mohan Roy

[B] Keshav Chandra Sen

[C] Henri Viviyan Derojiyo

[D] Ashutosh Chaudhary

Q.19) Where did Mahatma Gandhi first used his principle of Satyagraha?

[A] Champaran (Bihar)

[B] Kheda (Gujarat)

[C] Ahmedabad Mill strike

[D] Rowlatt Act

Q.20) Who was the founder of India’s first cotton cloth mill?

[A] Kavasaji Nanaji Dabhar

[B] Jamshedji Tata

[C] Ranchodlal Mehta

[D] Nanji Kalidas Mehta

Q.21) Who was the famous painter in the court of Akbar?

[A] Abdursamad

[B] Mansur

[C] Abut Hasan

[D] Bihjad

Q.22) The Asiatic Society of Bengal was founded by

[A] Ram Mohan Roy

[B] Sir William Jones

[C] W.W. Hunter

[D] William Bentinck

Q.23) The famous Fergusson College of Pune was started in 1885 by

[A] the Servants of Indian Society

[B] the Theosophical Society

[C] the Deccan Education Society

[D] the Social Service League

Q.24) Who started the Journal `Bahiskrit Bharat’?

[A] Jyotiba Phule

[B] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

[C] Karsandas Mulji

[D] Bhandaji

Q.25) In Buddhist terminology, the word Tharmachakra Pravartana’ indicates the

[A] belief in the cycle of life and death

[B] attainment of Nirvana by Buddha

[C] first sermon by Buddha

[D] personal religion of the Chakravarti

Q.26) Which one of the following sculptures does not belong to the Mauryan period?

[A] Saranath lion capital

[B] Dhauli elephant

[C] Standing Buddha from Mathura

[D] Rampurva bull

Q.27) Squinch system in architecture for supporting the dome was used for the first time in

[A] Iltutmish’s tomb

[B] Alai Darvaza

[C] Ghiyasuddin Tughluq’s tomb

[D] Humayun’s tomb

Q.28) Samudragupta’s victories are mentioned in which records?

[A] Mathura Rock Edicts

[B] Girnar Inscriptions

[C] Aihole Inscriptions

[D] Allahabad Inscription

Q.29) Who was the author of Abhigyana Shakuntalam?

[A] Kalidas

[B] Sanghadas

[C] Harisen

[D] Rajshekhar

Q.30) The Third Buddhist Council was summoned by

[A] Chandragupta Maurya

[B] Ashok

[C] Bimbisar

[D] Kanishka

Q.31) During the Sangam age the Mahabharat in Tamil was composed by

[A] Perundevanar

[B] Villiputhur

[C] Kamban

[D] Kuttan

Q.32) The Delhi Sultan, who established a minister of agricultural development, was

[A] Balban

[B] Muhammad Tughluq

[C] Alauddin Khalji

[D] Firuz Tughluq

Q.33) The Vijayanagar Emperor, who made the greatest contribution to Telugu and Sanskrit literature, was

[A] Devaraya I

[B] Devaraya II

[C] Krishnadevaraya

[D] Ramraya

Q.34) Yahiya Sirhindi the author of Tarikh-l-Mubarakshahi lived during the period of

[A] Lodis

[B] Sayidds

[C] Tughluqs

[D] Khaljis

Q.35) The Satnamis who rebelled in the time of Aurangzeb and occupied the town of Narmaul were the followers of

[A] Kabir

[B] Dadu

[C] Guru Nanak

[D] Ravidas

Q.36) Dandakaranya receives maximum rain through

[A] summer cyclone

[B] retreating monsoon

[C] winter cyclone

[D] local storm

Q.37) Small rills or clefts found in lower Ganga delta are called

[A] khal

[B] khadera

[C] khari

[D] khor

Q.38) Which river is called the ‘Hope of Gujarat’?

[A] Sabarmati

[B] Narmada

[C] Tapti

[D] Mahi

Q.39) Which is the oldest drainage system?

[A] Chambal

[B] Indo-Brahma

[C] Ganga

[D] Kosi

Q.40) Which of the following oil refineries of India has the maximum capacity?

[A] Koyali

[B] Trombay

[C] Barauni

[D] Mathura

Q.41) What is the number of the longest national highway in India that passes through Jabalpur?

[A] NH 13

[B] NH 07

[C] NH 33

[D] NH 42

Q.42) What is the total length of Kaveri river?

[A] 381 km

[B] 357 km

[C] 802 km

[D] 64 km

Q.43) Amarkantak, source place of Son, Narmada and Mahanadi rivers is situated at

[A] Maikala range

[B] Makalu range

[C] Rajmahal hills

[D] Mahadeo hills

Q.44) Through which of the following districts of Madhya Pradesh Indian Standard Time Line passes?

[A] Bilaspur

[B] Jabalpur

[C] Mandla

[D] Bhopal

Q.45) On which river Bhakhra dam is situated?

[A] Ravi

[B] Beas

[C] Jhelum

[D] Satluj

Q.46) Average height of Kosi plain from mean sea level is

[A] 300 m

[B] 150 m

[C] 100 m

[D] 30 m

Q.47) Through which State Tropic of Cancer passes?

[A] Meghalaya

[B] Uttar Pradesh

[C] Bihar

[D] Orissa

Q.48) In which State Lumding is situated?

[A] Assam

[B] Arunachal Pradesh

[C] Manipur

[D] Nagaland

Q.49) Which State of India experiences maximum marine erosion?

[A] Kerala

[B] Gujarat

[C] West Bengal

[D] Maharashtra

Q.50) Which is the glacial lake of India?

[A] Manasarovar

[B] Siachen

[C] Dal

[D] Wular

Q.51) Who is known as the Father of International Green Revolution?

[A] Norman Borlaug

[B] M.S. Swaminathan

[C] Erik Acharius

[D] Peter Artedi

Q.52) Which of the following days is celebrated as the World Earth Day?

[A] 44562

[B] 44593

[C] 44621

[D] 44652

Q.53) Who is the present Director General of Indian Council of Agriculture Research (ICAR)?

[A] Dr. R.S. Paroda

[B] Dr. Mangala Rai

[C] Dr. M.S. Swaminathan

[D] Dr. S. Ayyappan

Q.54) The present President of NASSCOM is

[A] Pramod Bhasin

[B] Som Mittal

[C] Ashok Soota

[D] Ganesh Natarajan

Q.55) Which of the following represents the number of the member countries of ‘Euro Zone’?

[A] 12

[B] 14

[C] 17

[D] 18

Q.56) Who among the following personalities won the Nobel Prize in Literature for the year 2012?

[A] Liu Xiaobo

[B] Mo Yan

[C] Gao Xingjian

[D] Mario Vargas Llosa

Q.57) Who among the following is the President of the International Paralympics Committee?

[A] Philip Craven

[B] Jacques Rogge

[C] John W. Mitchell

[D] Stephen Kalonzo Musyoka

Q.58) Which of the following Five-Year Plans was called the Rolling Plans?

[A] Fifth Five-Year Plan

[B] Sixth Five-Year Plan

[C] Ninth Five-Year Plan

[D] Seventh Five-Year Plan

Q.59) 16th Non-Aligned Movement Summit was held at

[A] Tehran

[B] Baghdad

[C] Cairo

[D] Riyadh

Q.60) ‘Liaoning’ is the first aircraft carrier of

[A] China

[B] Japan

[C] India

[D] Sri Lanka

Q.61) Who among the following is the brand ambassador of the `Nirmal Bharat Yatra’?

[A] Priyanka Chopra

[B] Vidya Balan

[C] Rahul Dravid

[D] Salman Khan

Q.62) Who is the current head of IMF?

[A] Dominique Strauss-Kahn

[B] Robert Zoellick

[C] Christine Lagarde

[D] Ban Ki-moon

Q.63) Which of the following services has been recently launched by the Indian Railways to find out the location of 6500 trains on real-time basis on Google Map?

[A] Rail Map

[B] Rail Loc

[C] Rail Search

[D] Rail Radar

Q.64) The California-based firm ‘Apple’ has lost a case against mobile maker HTC in the UK over the same technology. HTC belongs to

[A] South Korea

[B] China

[C] Germany

[D] Taiwan

Q.65) Who won Women’s Singles Family Circle Cup in 2013?

[A] Maria Sharapova

[B] Jelena Jankovic

[C] Serena Williams

[D] Jelena Vesnina

Q.66) Who won the 12th Asian Billiards Championship in Indore?

[A] Alok Kumar

[B] Rupesh Shah

[C] Ashok Shandilya

[D] Devendra Joshi

Q.67) The Chairman of the Expert Committee on GAAR (General Anti Avoidance Rules) is

[A] Y.V. Reddy

[B] Sri Kumar Banerjee

[C] Partha Sarathi Shome

[D] Vayalar Ravi

Q.68) ‘Aam Admi Bima Yojana’ is an insurance scheme for rural landless households introduced by

[A] National Insurance Co.

[B] Life Insurance Corporation of India


[D] Rural Insurance Co.

Q.69) Dans le Harem de Kadhafi is a book written by

[A] Annick Cojean

[B] Larry Ellison

[C] Jeff Bezos

[D] Lewis Hamilton

Q.70) Where would you find the headquarters of Food & Agriculture Organization (FAO)?

[A] London

[B] Berlin

[C] Rome

[D] New York

Q.71) Which of the following statements is wrong?

[A] Fermentation process occurs in presence of enzymes

[B] Fermentation process occurs in presence of oxygen

[C] Decomposition of organic compound occurs in fermentation process

[D] Carbon dioxide gas is produced in fermentation process

Q.72) From the visible light, chlorophyll can absorb which color combination maximum?

[A] Green-yellow

[B] Yellow-purple

[C] Red-orange

[D] Green-purple

Q.73) Which of the following is an omnivorous animal?

[A] Rabbit

[B] Tiger

[C] Deer

[D] Rat

Q.74) The digested food is absorbed by the wall of

[A] buccal cavity

[B] stomach

[C] rectum

[D] ileum

Q.75) Which accessory digestive gland is present in human being?

[A] Buccal cavity

[B] Stomach

[C] Liver

[D] Pancreas

Q.76) Which reaction occurs during photophosphorylation?

[A] Synthesis of ATP from ADP

[B] Synthesis of ADP from ATP

[C] Synthesis of NADPH2 from NADP

[D] Synthesis of NADP from NADPH2

Q.77) Which rays strikes on the earth due to depletion of ozone layer?

[A] Ultraviolet

[B] Infrared

[C] Visible light

[D] UV and infrared

Q.78) The length of one helix in DNA is

[A] 14 A

[B] 24 A

[C] 34 A

[D] 44 A

Q.79) The average size of a human gene is

[A] 1000 bp

[B] 40000 bp

[C] 2106 bp

[D] 1510 bp

Q.80) Which of the following carbohydrates would be most abundant in the diet of strict vegetarians?

[A] Amylose

[B] Lactose

[C] Cellulose

[D] Maltose

Q.81) What will be the measure of refractive angle when incident angle becomes critical angle?

[A] smaller than 90 °

[B] 90 °

[C] greater than 90 °

[D] 180 °

Q.82) Velocity of light in vacuum is ms-1.

[A] 3 x 106

[B] 3 x 108

[C] 3 x 101 °

[D] 3 x 10’5

Q.83) Which colour is deviated maximum in the spectrum obtained from a prism?

[A] Red

[B] Yellow

[C] Violet

[D] Blue

Q.84) The unit of electric potential is

[A] volt

[B] joule

[C] watt

[D] ampere

Q.85) The magnetic field is maximum in solenoid

[A] at the end

[B] on the axis

[C] at the infinite distance

[D] none of the above

Q.86) Which form is considered as an optional source of energy?

[A] Geothermal energy

[B] Natural gas

[C] Hydrogen

[D] Petroleum

Q.87) Which State of India uses geothermal energy?

[A] Gujarat

[B] Rajasthan

[C] Maharashtra

[D] Madhya Pradesh

Q.88) Which energy source is not connected to the sun?

[A] Hydel energy

[B] Petroleum

[C] Nuclear energy

[D] Biogas

Q.89) Due to which process, stars are self-luminous?

[A] Chemical reaction

[B] Nuclear fission

[C] Radiation

[D] Nuclear fusion

Q.90) Which system is employed for manufacture of NH3 by Haber’s process?

[A] Open system

[B] Closed system

[C] Isolated system

[D] None of the above

Q.91) When does the rate of reaction increases?

[A] On increasing the pressure of the system

[B] On decreasing the pressure of the system

[C] On decreasing the temperature of the system

[D] When the collision between reactant molecules decreases

Q.92) What is brine?

[A] Cold solution of concentrated NaC1

[B] Concentrated NH3 solution

[C] Aqueous solution with carbonate

[D] Aqueous solution of NH4C1

Q.93) Which substance is used as a fire extinguisher?

[A] NaCl

[B] Na2SO3

[C] NaNO3

[D] NaHCO3

Q.94) …………. is called dead burnt plaster.

[A] Anhydrous calcium sulphate

[B] Hydrous calcium sulphate

[C] Anhydrous sodium carbonate

[D] Hydrous sodium carbonate

Q.95) Which type of glass is used for the preparation of laboratory glass?

[A] Optical glass

[B] Pyrex glass

[C] Sodium glass

[D] Safety glass

Q.96) Which elements are present in stainless steel?

[A] Iron and nickel

[B] Iron, chromium and nickel

[C] Iron and chromium

[D] Iron, nickel and manganese

Q.97) Which compound of the following is not an oxidizing agent?

[A] NaBH4

[B] KMnO4

[C] Cr03

[D] Fehling solution

Q.98) Which metal is obtained in liquid state?

[A] Sodium

[B] Galium

[C] Tin

[D] Uranium

Q.99) Which is the less reactive metal?

[A] Magnesium

[B] Potassium

[C] Sodium

[D] Calcium

Q.100) Which enzyme is used to convert glucose to ethanol?

[A] Invertase

[B] Zymase

[C] Lactase

[D] Yeast

Paper 2: Law

Q.1) A music teacher committing sexual intercourse with a minor girl having obtained her consent on the pretext that the same is required to improve her voice, was held guilty of rape in

[A] R v. Cathrine

[B] Ashby v. White

[C] Dounghe v. Stevension

[D] R v. Williams

Q.2) The doctrine of vicarious liabilities is applied when there is relationship between

[A] principal and agent

[B] servant and independent contractor

[C] master and servant

[D] All of the above

Q.3) For the tort of ‘false Imprisonment’, there should be

[A] total restraint on the liberty of a person

[B] partial restraint on the liberty of a person

[C] means of escape

[D] All of the above

Q.4) Toil of defamation is divided into libel and slander in

[A] English Law only

[B] Indian Law only

[C] both Indian Law and English Law

[D] None of the above

Q.5) ‘Nuisance’ as a tort was defined as “unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land, it some right over, or in connection with it” by

[A] Winfield

[B] Salmond

[C] Pollock

[D] Underhill

Q.6) Tort of defamation can be in respect of a

[A] living person only

[B] deceased person

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Either (A) or (B)

Q.7) Which one of the following can be described as malicious prosecution?

[A] Criminal Proceeding

[B] Money Recovery Proceeding

[C] Bankruptcy Proceeding

[D] Liquidation Proceeding

Q.8) The liability for malicious prosecution arises when the proceedings are instituted before

[A] judicial authority

[B] executive authority

[C] quasi-judicial authority

[D] Both (A) and (C)

Q.9) The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur applied by the Supreme Court in

[A] Jasbir Kaur v. State of Punjab

[B] Alka v. Union of India

[C] Asha Ram v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi

[D] Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti

Q.10) The maxim res ipsa loquitur is a

[A] rule of law

[B] rule of procedure

[C] rule of evidence

[D] rule of negligence

Q.11) Case of Kasturilal v. State of UP is related to

[A] fraud of State

[B] contractual liability of State

[C] vicarious liability of State

[D] None of the above

Q.12) ‘Goods’ within the meaning of Section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act is

[A] actionable claim

[B] money

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.13) Under Section 2(6) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, ‘Future Goods’ mean

[A] goods which are not yet in existence

[B] unascertained goods

[C] ascertained goods

[D] specific goods

Q.14) The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 came into force on

[A] 1st July, 1930

[B] 1st December, 1930

[C] 1st April, 1930

[D] 31st January, 1931

Q.15) The meaning of the term ‘caveat emptor’ is

[A] goods should be free from defect

[B] ownership of goods passes after sale

[C] let the buyer be aware

[D] none of the above

Q.16) Which of the following are goods within the meaning of Section 2(7) of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

[A] Things attached to land which are agreed to be severed before sale

[B] Things forming part of the land agreed to be severed before sale. 24.

[C] Either (A) or (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.17) The mode of determining the existence of partnership has been laid down in

[A] Section 5

[B] Section 6

[C] Section 9

[D] Section 10

Q.18) If a partner chooses to use any assets of the partnership firm for his own purpose, it gives rise to

[A] civil liability of the partner

[B] criminal liability of the partner

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Either (A) or (B)

Q.19) The term ‘goodwill’ is a thing easy to describe but very difficult to define, is stated by

[A] Lord Herschell

[B] Lord Heldaene

[C] Lord Macnaughten

[D] Lord Eldon

Q.20) Where a partner is authorised to recover dues of the partnership and spend the same for the business of the partnership, and If he does not deposit the money so collected in the bank, the partner is

[A] guilty of criminal breach of trust

[B] accountable civilly to the other partners

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Either (A) or (B)

Q.21) A dormant partner is one who is

[A] not interested in the business of the firm

[B] not liable to outsider

[C] entitled to share profits only

[D] neither active nor known to outsiders

Q.22) The term ‘negotiable instrument’ is defined in the Negotiable Instrument Act, under

[A] Section 2(d)

[B] Section 12

[C] Section 13

[D] Section 13A

Q.23) Relation of Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is with

[A] right of holder

[B] right of holder in due course

[C] punishment for dishonour of cheque

[D] None of the above

Q.24) ‘A person who receives a negotiable instrument in good faith for valuable consideration is known as

[A] holder of value

[B] holder

[C] holder in rights

[D] holder in due course

Q.25) All cheques are bill of exchange, but all bills of exchange are not cheques

[A] false

[B] Partly true and partly false

[C] true

[D] None of the above

Q.26) In determining reasonable time for the purpose of a negotiable instrument

[A] public holidays are excluded

[B] public holidays are included

[C] only the holidays observed by banks are excluded

[D] None of the above

Q.27) ‘A shareholder of a company can enter into a contract with the company’ was held in the case of

[A] Solomon v. Solomon

[B] Daimler Co. v. Continental Tyre Company

[C] Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co.v. Rick L.R.

[D] S.T. Corporation-of India v. Commercial Tax Officer

Q.28) Liability of directors of a public company is towards

[A] shareholder of the company

[B] public

[C] government

[D] Company Law Board

Q.29) Question-29

Which of the following is most essential for a company?

[A] Memorandum of Association

[B] Share Capital

[C] Prospectus

[D] Certificate of incorporation

Q.30) How many meetings of the shareholders of a company in a year is essential?

[A] 4

[B] 2

[C] 3

[D] 1

Q.31) How much amount out of the profits of a company can be distributed as dividend amongst its shareholders?

[A] 0.1

[B] 0.15

[C] 0.05

[D] Not fixed

Q.32) Evidence means and includes

[A] only oral evidence

[B] only documentary evidence

[C] both oral evidence and documentary evidence

[D] only such oral evidence based on documents

Q.33) Any disputed handwriting can be proved

[A] by calling a handwriting expert

[B] by calling a person who is acquainted with the handwriting of the writer

[C] by comparing the admitted and disputed handwriting

[D] All of the above

Q.34) Question is this, whether A was raped and murdered? The fact that she said, without making complaint, that she was raped

[A] will be relevant as conduct

[B] will be relevant as substantial evidence

[C] will be relevant as secondary evidence

[D] can be relevant under Section 32(1) or Section 157 of the Evidence Act

Q.35) The Indian Evidence Act was drafted by

[A] Lord Macaulay

[B] Sir James F. Stephen

[C] Huxley

[D] Sir Henry Sumner Maine

Q.36) Relevancy and admissibility under the Evidence Act are

[A] synonymous

[B] coextensive

[C] neither synonymous nor coextensive

[D] None of the above

Q.37) Under the law of evidence, the relevant fact

[A] must be logically relevant

[B] must be legally relevant

[C] must be legally and logically relevant

[D] must be legally and logically relevant and admissible

Q.38) Confession of an accused is admissible against the other co-accused

[A] under Section 28 of the Evidence Act

[B] under Section 29 of the Evidence Act

[C] under Section 30 of the Evidence Act

[D] under Section 31 of the Evidence Act

Q.39) A dying declaration to be admissible

[A] must be made before a magistrate

[B] must be made before a police officer

[C] must be made before a doctor or a private person

[D] may be made either before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person

Q.40) The ‘fact in issue’ means

[A] fact, the existence or non-existence of which is admitted by the parties

[B] fact, the existence or non-existence of which is disputed by the parties

[C] fact, the existence or non-existence of which is not disputed by the parties

[D] All of the above

Q.41) Defence of alibi is governed by

[A] Section 6 of the Evidence Act

[B] Section 9 of the Evidence Act

[C] Section 12 of the Evidence Act

[D] Section 11 of the Evidence Act

Q.42) Which of the following is a right of civil nature?

[A] Right to worship in a temple

[B] Right to share in offerings in a temple

[C] Right to take out procession

[D] All of the above

Q.43) Principle of res judicata applies

[A] between co-plaintiffs

[B] between co-defendants

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.44) Validity of a foreign judgement can be challenged under Section 13 of the CPC

[A] in a civil court only

[B] in a criminal court only

[C] both in civil court and in criminal court

[D] neither in civil court nor in criminal court

Q.45) A dies leaving behind a son X and a married daughter Y. A suit filed by A, after his death can be continued by

[A] X Mime as legal representative

[B] Y alone as legal representative

[C] X, Y and the husband of Y as legal representative

[D] X and Y both as legal representative

Q.46) Principle of constructive res judicata is contained in

[A] Explanation III of Section 11

[B] Explanation IV to Section 11

[C] Explanation VI to Section 11

[D] Explanation VII to Section 11

Q.47) Which one of the following is an incorrect statement?

[A] An arbitral award is a contract.

[B] An arbitral award must be in writing and signed.

[C] An arbitral award includes an interim award

[D] None of the above

Q.48) After the arbitral award is made, each party shall be delivered

[A] the original award

[B] a signed copy of the award

[C] a photocopy of the award

[D] an unsigned copy of the award

Q.49) In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right

[A] by the police officer

[B] by the court

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Either (A) or (B)

Q.50) The power to direct investigation under Section 156(3) of Cr.P.C can be exercised by

[A] a Magistrate

[B] a Sessions Judge

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Either (A) or (B)

Q.51) The investigating police officer has power to summon the attendance of a person acquainted with the facts and circumstances of the case under

[A] Section 158 of Cr.P.C.

[B] Section 159 of Cr.P.C.

[C] Section 160 of Cr.P.C.

[D] Section 161 of Cr.P.C.

Q.52) Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to form new States, change in the area of present States, change in the territories and time of the States?

[A] article 5

[B] Article 11

[C] Article 13

[D] Article 3

Q.53) Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to make law on the subject mentioned in the State List?

[A] Article 245

[B] Article 249

[C] Article 251

[D] Article 253

Q.54) In which of the following cases the traditional concept of equity was not accepted by the Supreme Court and a new concept of equity was adopted by the Supreme Court?

[A] Kedarnath v. State of West Bengal

[B] State of West Bengal v. Anwar All

[C] Balsara v. Bombay State

[D] E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

Q.55) By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Indian Constitution, Right to Education was made a Fundamental Right?

[A] 42nd Amendment

[B] 44th Amendment

[C] 49th Amendment

[D] 86th Amendment

Q.56) By which of the following Articles of the Constitution, constitutional safeguard has been provided to public servants?

[A] Article 251

[B] Article 309

[C] Article 311

[D] Article 312

Q.57) If the positions of President and Vice President are vacant, who among the following officiates as the President of India?

[A] The Prime Minister

[B] The Chief Justice of India

[C] The Speaker of Lok Sabha

[D] None of the above

Q.58) If I were asked to name any particular Article in this Constitution as the most important – an Article without which. this Constitution would be a nullity, I could not refer to any other Article except this one …. it is the very soul of the Constitution and the very heart of it. Who among the following has given the above statement?

[A] Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad

[C] Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

[D] Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan

Q.59) In which of the following cases it was held by the Supreme Court that right to trade on pavements is a Fundamental Rights?

[A] Sukumar Mukherjee v. State of Bengal

[B] Fertilizer Corporation Workers’ Union, Syndri v. Union of India

[C] P.A. Inamdar v. State of Maharashtra

[D] Sodan Singh v. New Delhi Municipal Committee

Q.60) By which of the following Amendment Acts of the Constitution, Chapter of Fundamental Duties have been added as Chapter IV-A in the Constitution?

[A] 40th Amendment Act

[B] 42nd Amendment Act

[C] 45th Amendment Act

[D] 49th Amendment Act

Q.61) Which of the following is the sequence number of Ms. Patil as President of the Republic of India?

[A] 10th

[B] 11th

[C] 12th

[D] 13th

Q.62) According to our Constitution, Rajya Sabha is

[A] dissolved in two years

[B] dissolved every five years

[C] dissolved every six years

[D] not subject to dissolution

Q.63) In the case of Golaknath v. State of Punjab, it was remarked that our “Preamble contains in a nutshell its ideals and inspirations.” Who was the Judge?

[A] Justice Mathew

[B] Justice Krishna Iyer

[C] Justice Subba Rao

[D] Justice H.R. Khanna

Q.64) In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?

[A] A.K. Gopalan’s case

[B] Berubari’s case

[C] Minerva Mill’s case

[D] A.K. Antony’s case

Q.65) Right to life does not include Right to die was held in

[A] R. Rathi Ram v. Union of India

[B] State v. Sanjay Kumar Bhatia

[C] Chenna Jagdeshwar v. State of Andhra Pradesh

[D] Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab

Q.66) Petitions to the Supreme Court under Article 32 are subject to the rule of res judicata, except

[A] quo warranto

[B] habeas corpus

[C] certiorari

[D] prohibition

Q.67) Which among the Fundamental Right?

[A] Right to Strike

[B] Right against Exploitation

[C] Right to Equality

[D] Right to Freedom of Religion

Q.68) The Right to Property was dropped from the List of Fundamental Rights by the

[A] 24th Amendment

[B] 42nd Amendment

[C] 44th Amendment

[D] None of the above

Q.69) The protection and improvement of environment, including forests and wildlife of the country are in

[A] Directive Principles

[B] Fundamental Duties

[C] National Policy

[D] both Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties

Q.70) By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years?

[A] 48th

[B] 57th

[C] 61st

[D] 63rd

Q.71) Under the Government of India Act, 1935, the Federal Court had

[A] original jurisdiction only

[B] appellate jurisdiction only

[C] advisory jurisdiction only

[D] original, appellate and advisory jurisdictions

Q.72) Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral?

[A] Indian Council Act, 1909

[B] Government of India Act, 1919

[C] Government of India Act, 1935

[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947

Q.73) Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?

[A] Indian Council Act, 1909

[B] Government of India Act, 1919

[C] Government of India Act, 1935

[D] Indian Independence Act, 1947

Q.74) When was Magna Carta granted in England?

[A] 1832

[B] 1911

[C] 1949

[D] 1215

Q.75) The British Constitution is the mother of Constitutions. The British Parliament is the mother of Parliaments. Whose statement is the above?

[A] William Holdsworth

[B] Herman Finer

[C] Ogg

[D] Munro

Q.76) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

[A] Conventions are certain and clear.

[B] Conventions are unwritten.

[C] Conventions are not applied by the courts.

[D] Conventions take birth by chance.

Q.77) Which of the following is/are the main source of the British Constitution?

[A] Judicial Decisions

[B] Conventions

[C] Commentaries

[D] Common Law

Q.78) There are many subtle distinctions in the vernacular of the British Constitution but none more vital than the distinction between the King and the Crown. Whose statement is the above?

[A] Herman Finer

[B] Munro

[C] Ogg

[D] Gladstone

Q.79) The two Houses of the British Parliament are

[A] Senate and House of Lords

[B] House of Commons and Diet

[C] House of Commons and Senate

[D] House of Commons and House of Lords

Q.80) In the constitutional history of England, veto power was lastly used by the King in

[A] 1707

[B] 1832

[C] 1911

[D] 1949

Q.81) In England, the government is called the

[A] Government of the King

[B] Government of the People

[C] Constitutional Government

[D] Government of Parliament

Q.82) The mother of British Cabinet is

[A] Privy Council

[B] House of Lords

[C] House of Commons

[D] Parliament

Q.83) Cabinet is the solar orbital around which other bodies revolve and that it is a threefold hinge that connects together for action – the King, the Lords and the Commons. Whose statement is the above?

[A] Lowell

[B] Marriot

[C] Munro

[D] Gladstone

Q.84) Which of the following statements is not correct?

[A] Money Bill can be presented first in the House of Lords.

[B] The House of Lords cannot detain Money Bill for more than one month.

[C] The Speaker of the House of Commons decides which bill is Money Bill.

[D] The House of Lords is the highest court of appeal.

Q.85) It is convention in Britain that

[A] the Prime Minister can be member of the House of Lords

[B] the Prime Minister will be from House of Commons

[C] the Prime Minister will be the person of King’s choice

[D] the Prime Minister can be member of the Privy Council

Q.86) The highest court in the British Constitution is called

[A] Supreme Court

[B] Privy Council

[C] High Court

[D] House of Lords

Q.87) Delegatus non potest delegare means

[A] a delegate can further delegate its powers

[B] delegated legislation is valid

[C] a delegate cannot further delegate his powers

[D] None of the above

Q.88) During the operation of martial law

[A] important rights of citizens are suspended

[B] Parliament is dissolved

[C] Civil Government is suspended

[D] None of the above

Q.89) In Britain, who among the following make Shadow Cabinet?

[A] Prime Minister

[B] King

[C] Leader of the Opposition Party

[D] Lord Chancellor

Q.90) In England, the doctrine of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by

[A] Jenning

[B] Blackstone

[C] Prof. Dicey

[D] Sydney Low

Q.91) Writ of Habeas corpus means

[A] to produce the body of a person illegally detained before the court

[B] stop the violation of right of a man

[C] respect the Human Rights of a person

[D] None of the above

Q.92) Under Hindu Law, marriage is a

[A] sacrament

[B] contract

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.93) Law relating to marriages amongst Hindus has been codified under the

[A] Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

[B] Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956

[C] Child Marriage Restraint Act, 1929

[D] All of the above

Q.94) If parties to a Hindu Marriage are Sapinda’ to each other, the marriage is

[A] valid

[B] voidable

[C] void

[D] None of the above

Q.95) A Hindu dies intestate leaving behind two sons, one daughter, and widow. His property shall devolve to

[A] widow only

[B] sons and daughter only

[C] sons only

[D] sons, daughter and widow all

Q.96) Under Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, a Hindu can dispose of his interest in a Mitakshara Coparcenary Property by

[A] sale

[B] gift

[C] will

[D] None of the above

Q.97) A person is not disqualified from succeeding to any property on the ground of any disease, defect or deformity is provided under

[A] Section 28 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956

[B] Section 29 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956

[C] Section 30 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956

[D] None of the above

Q.98) Under which of the following Sections of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, husband and wife may file a petition of divorce by mutual consent?

[A] Section 10

[B] Section 11

[C] Section 9

[D] Section 13B

Q.99) Consent theory of divorce was introduced in the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 in the year

[A] 1956

[B] 1961

[C] 1976

[D] 1979

Q.100) Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, who among the following is not entitled to adopt?

[A] An unmarried person

[B] Wife who is divorced

[C] Husband with the consent of wife

[D] Husband without consent of wife

Q.101) A Hindu male of 28 years of age adopts a female child of 13 years of age. The adoption is

[A] valid

[B] voidable

[C] void

[D] illegal

Q.102) Which of the following is the secondary source of Muslim Law?

[A] Custom

[B] Ijma

[C] Qiyas

[D] None of the above

Q.103) Which of the following modifies the application of Muslim Law?

[A] Muslim Marriage Dissolution Act, 1939

[B] Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986

[C] Shariat Act, 1937

[D] All of the above

Q.104) Who applied Qiyas for the first time as source of Muslim Law?

[A] Imam Abu Hanifa

[B] Imam Yusuf

[C] Imam Jafar

[D] Imam Ahmed

Q.105) Which of the following is absolute incapacity for marriage?

[A] Consanguinity

[B] Affinity

[C] Fosterage

[D] All of the above

Q.106) A Muslim can marry any number of wives not exceeding four. If a Muslim marries a fifth wife such a marriage shall be

[A] void

[B] valid

[C] irregular

[D] Either (A) or (B)

Q.107) After divorce, a Muslim woman

[A] can immediately marry

[B] cannot remarry

[C] can many only after completion of Iddat

[D] None of the above

Q.108) How many witnesses are necessary in Shia muslim marriage

[A] One sale and two females

[B] Two males

[C] No witness is required

[D] Both (A) and (B)

Q.109) Which of the following is the wife’s right when her husband does not pay dower?

[A] Refuse consummation

[B] File suit for recovery of dower

[C] Keep possession over dead husband’s property

[D] All of the above

Q.110) Which of the following is the right of preemption?

[A] A right to seek eviction of tenant and get vacant possession

[B] A right to purchase property in preference to other person

[C] A right to purchase property at low price

[D] None of the above

Q.111) Custody of illegitimate children belongs to

[A] the mother

[B] the father

[C] both the mother and the father

[D] either the mother or the father

Q.112) Which one of the following Sections of the T.P. Act defines ‘Transfer of Property’?

[A] Section 2

[B] Section 3

[C] Section 4

[D] Section 5

Q.113) The T.P. Act came into force on

[A] July 01, 1882

[B] August 01, 1882

[C] September 01, 1882

[D] October 01, 1882

Q.114) The gift of future property is

[A] valid

[B] voidable

[C] void

[D] conditionally void

Q.115) In case of gift, if the donee dies before acceptance, then

[A] gift is voidable

[B] gift is void

[C] gift is valid

[D] None of the above

Q.116) An unborn person acquires vested interest on transfer

[A] immediately on birth

[B] after attaining majority

[C] on attaining 21 years of age

[D] in case of female after marriage

Q.117) Which one of the following mortgages does not require writing and registration?

[A] Simple mortgage

[B] English mortgage

[C] Usufructuary mortgage

[D] Mortgage by deposit of title deeds

Q.118) The ‘rule against perpetuity’ is provided in the T.P. Act under

[A] Section 13

[B] Section 14

[C] Section 15

[D] Section 17

Q.119) The principle of Its pendens embodied in Section 52 of the T.P. Act pertains to

[A] bonafide purchase

[B] public policy

[C] auction sale

[D] None of the above

Q.120) According to Section 5 of the T.P. Act, living person includes

[A] company of association of individuals

[B] individual human being only

[C] only important company or associations

[D] None of the above

Q.121) The term ‘sale’, in the Transfer of Property Act, is defined in

[A] Section 53

[B] Section 54

[C] Section 55

[D] Section 56

Q.122) The primary source of equity is

[A] custom

[B] written law

[C] judicial decision

[D] conscience

Q.123) English rules of equity have

[A] been substantially incorporated by the Indian legislature

[B] been partially incorporated by the Indian legislature

[C] been wholly incorporated by the Indian legislature

[D] not all been incorporated by the Indian legislature

Q.124) In case of conflict between equity on one hand and the text of law on the other, the court shall

[A] choose equity

[B] choose law

[C] have the discretion to choose between equity and law

[D] be bound by precedents

Q.125) Which of the following statements is correct?

[A] A litigant cannot seek equitable remedies as a matter of right as such remedies are at the discretion of the court.

[B] A litigant can seek equitable remedies – as a matter of right as such remedies are The duty of the court.

[C] There is distinction between legal interest and equitable interest in India

[D] Statutory provision shall apply only to legal interest and not to equitable interest in India.

Q.126) The concept of ‘trusts’ originated in

[A] France

[B] Germany

[C] England

[D] Rome

Q.127) The person not necessary for the creation of trust is

[A] the author of the trust

[B] trustee

[C] legal representative

[D] beneficiary

Q.128) A trust created by the will of the testator may be revoked by him at his pleasure

[A] by express words

[B] by acts which lead to the inference that he intended to revoke it

[C] by subsequent will

[D] in case of person governed by the Hindu Marriage Act by the marriage of the testator

Q.129) A trust is not extinguished

[A] when its purpose is completely fulfilled

[B] when its purpose becomes unlawful

[C] when the trust being revocable is expressly revoked

[D] where the trustees have transferred their interest

Q.130) Under Section 10 of the Specific Performance Act, the specific performance cannot be granted, if

[A] there is no concluded contract

[B] there is a concluded contract

[C] the compensation in money is not an adequate relief

[D] there exists no standard for ascertaining the actual damages

Q.131) Specific performance of contract means

[A] actual execution of the contract according to its stipulations

[B] claim of damages or compensation for non-execution of contract

[C] Either (A) or (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.132) A proposal when accepted becomes

[A] promise under Section 2(b)

[B] agreement under Section 2(e)

[C] contract under Section 2(h)

[D] None of the above

Q.133) An agreement enforceable at the Instance of party and not of the other is called

[A] a valid contract

[B] an illegal contract

[C] a void contract

[D] a voidable contract

Q.134) A contract made by a minor is void ab initio. It was laid down in

[A] Kanhiyalal v. Girdhari Lai

[B] Mohammad Saeed v. Vishambhar Dayal

[C] Mohri Bibi v. Dharmo Dass Ghosh

[D] Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt

Q.135) Agreement, the meaning of which is not certain or not capable of certainty, is

[A] voidable

[B] illegal

[C] enforceable

[D] void

Q.136) Goods displayed in showcase of a shop with price tag is

[A] offer

[B] invitation to offer

[C] counter offer

[D] None of the above

Q.137) An agreement in connection with horse racing under Section 30 is

[A] unlawful

[B] voidable

[C] void

[D] valid

Q.138) An agreement to remain unmarried is

[A] valid

[B] void

[C] voidable

[D] unenforceable

Q.139) A contract, the performance of which becomes unlawful or impossible, is

[A] void when the performance becomes unlawful or impossible

[B] void

[C] voidable when the performance becomes unlawful or impossible

[D] neither void nor voidable 140.

Q.140) The age of majority for the purpose of the Contract Act is

[A] 18 years

[B] 21 years

[C] 16 years for girls and 18 years for boys

[D] 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys

Q.141) A sum fixed beforehand as amount of compensation payable in the event of breach of contract is called

[A] liquidated damage

[B] penalty

[C] Either (A) or (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.142) A ‘agrees to pay Rs. 1,000 to B without consideration. This agreement is

[A] voidable

[B] void

[C] not enforceable

[D] not enforceable as it was unwritten

Q.143) When the consent to the contract is caused by coercion, the contract under Section 19 is

[A] valid

[B] voidable

[C] void

[D] illegal

Q.144) When both the parties to agreement are at mistake regarding facts, the agreement will

[A] be enforceable

[B] be voidable

[C] not be void

[D] be void

Q.145) A agrees with B to trace out secret money for him by the way of magic. This agreement is

[A] void

[B] voidable

[C] enforceable

[D] legal and enforceable in Bengal

Q.146) A enters into contract with B. In this, B is guilty of fraud. A can now

[A] rescind the contract but ‘cannot get compensation

[B] get compensation only

[C] rescind the contract and get compensation

[D] None of the above

Q.147) Tort is a civil wrong for which the remedy is common law action for unliquidated damages and which is not exclusively the breach of trust or other mere equitable obligation. Who has given the above definition of tort?

[A] Winfield

[B] Fraser

[C] Underhill

[D] Salmond

Q.148) The duty under the law of tort is towards

[A] a specific individual

[B] a group of individuals

[C] the world at large

[D] Both (A) and (B)

Q.149) To constitute a tort

[A] there must be some act or omission on the part of the defendant

[B] the act must result in violation of legal right vested in the plaintiff

[C] there must be a legal duty on the part of the defendant

[D] Both (A) and (B)

Q.150) An inevitable accident means

[A] an act of God

[B] an unexpected injury which could not have been foreseen and avoided

[C] an unexpected injury which could have been foreseen and avoided

[D] Both (A) and (B)

BJS 2013


Paper 1: General Studies

Q.1)D Q.2)C Q.3)B Q.4)A Q.5)B Q.6)C Q.7)A Q.8)C Q.9)A Q.10)A Q.11)D Q.12)A Q.13)A Q.14)A Q.15)B Q.16)A Q.17)C Q.18)A Q.19)A Q.20)A Q.21)A Q.22)B

Q.23)C Q.24)B Q.25)C Q.26)A Q.27)A Q.28)D Q.29)A Q.30)B Q.31)A Q.32)B Q.33)C Q.34)B Q.35)B Q.36)A Q.37)B Q.38)B Q.39)A Q.40)A Q.41)B Q.42)C

Q.43)A Q.44)A Q.45)D Q.46)D Q.47)C Q.48)A Q.49)A Q.50)B Q.51)A Q.52)D Q.53)D Q.54)B Q.55)C Q.56)B Q.57)A Q.58)B Q.59)A Q.60)A Q.61)B Q.62)C

Q.63)D Q.64)D Q.65)C Q.66)B Q.67)C Q.68)B Q.69)A Q.70)C Q.71)B Q.72)C Q.73)D Q.74)D Q.75)D Q.76)A Q.77)A Q.78)C Q.79)B Q.80)D Q.81)B Q.82)B

Q.83)C Q.84)A Q.85)D Q.86)A Q.87)A Q.88)B Q.89)D Q.90)B Q.91)A Q.92)A Q.93)D Q.94)A Q.95)B Q.96)B Q.97)A Q.98)B Q.99)A Q.100)B

Paper 2: Law

Q.1)D Q.2)A Q.3)A Q.4)A Q.5)A Q.6)C Q.7)A Q.8)D Q.9)D Q.10)C Q.11)C Q.12)A Q.13)A Q.14)A Q.15)C Q.16)C Q.17)B Q.18)A Q.19)C Q.20)B Q.21)D Q.22)C

Q.23)C Q.24)D Q.25)C Q.26)A Q.27)A Q.28)A Q.29)D Q.30)D Q.31)D Q.32)C Q.33)D Q.34)D Q.35)B Q.36)C Q.37)B Q.38)C Q.39)D Q.40)B Q.41)D Q.42)D

Q.43)C Q.44)A Q.45)D Q.46)B Q.47)A Q.48)B Q.49)C Q.50)A Q.51)C Q.52)D Q.53)B Q.54)D Q.55)D Q.56)C Q.57)B Q.58)C Q.59)D Q.60)B Q.61)C Q.62)D

Q.63)C Q.64)B Q.65)D Q.66)B Q.67)A Q.68)C Q.69)D Q.70)C Q.71)D Q.72)B Q.73)C Q.74)D Q.75)D Q.76)A Q.77)B Q.78)D Q.79)D Q.80)A Q.81)A Q.82)D

Q.83)D Q.84)A Q.85)B Q.86)D Q.87)C Q.88)A Q.89)C Q.90)C Q.91)A Q.92)A Q.93)A Q.94)C Q.95)D Q.96)C Q.97)A Q.98)D Q.99)C Q.100)D Q.101)C Q.102)A

Q.103)D Q.104)A Q.105)D Q.106)C Q.107)C Q.108)C Q.109)D Q.110)B Q.111)A Q.112)D Q.113)A Q.114)C Q.115)B Q.116)A Q.117)D Q.118)B Q.119)B

Q.120)A Q.121)B Q.122)D Q.123)A Q.124)B Q.125)A Q.126)C Q.127)C Q.128)D Q.129)D Q.130)A Q.131)A Q.132)A Q.133)D Q.134)C Q.135)D Q.136)B

Q.137)D Q.138)B Q.139)A Q.140)A Q.141)C Q.142)B Q.143)B Q.144)D Q.145)A Q.146)C Q.147)D Q.148)C Q.149)D Q.150)B

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