Download Bihar Judiciary Prelims Examination 2018 Solved Paper Pdf

Download Bihar Judiciary Prelims Examination 2018 Solved Paper Pdf

Find Bihar Judiciary Prelims Examination 2018 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Practice the Bihar Judiciary past year paper to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an with an edge over your competitors.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure, and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

Bihar Judiciary Prelims Mock Test Papers are Available here

Bihar Judiciary Prelims Paper 2018

Paper 1: General Studies

Q.1) Which country hosted the FIFA World Cup, 2018?

[A] Australia

[B] Russia


[D] Britain

Q.2) Where will the 2022 Asian Games be held?

[A] China

[B] Pakistan

[C] Bangladesh

[D] India

Q.3) Who is the vice Chairman of NITI Aayog of India?

[A] Arvind Saxena

[B] R. K. Mathur

[C] Dr. Rajiv Kumar

[D] Ashim Khurana

Q.4) Who is the present Secretary-General of UNO?

[A] Antonio Guterres

[B] Ban Ki-moon

[C] Miroslav Lajcak

[D] Peter Thomson

Q.5) Which cricketer has been chosen as the ‘The cricketer of the year, 2017’?

[A] Mahendra Singh Dhoni

[B] Virat Kohli

[C] Chris Gayle

[D] Steve Smith

Q.6) In which country, the world’s largest ‘air purifier’ has been built?

[A] India

[B] China


[D] France

Q.7) What is the purpose of ‘India Pride Project’?

[A] To provide justice to the Indians living in foreign countries

[B] To provide justice to women who have been divorced by NRIs

[C] To attach NRIs with Indian culture

[D] Bringing Indian heritage back to India

Q.8) Which scheme has been approved by the Central Government for providing skill training to one crore youth across the country?

[A] Prandhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana

[B] Digital India Mission

[C] Start-up India

[D] Stand-up India

Q.9) Which Union Department has launched India Hackathon program?

[A] Ministry of Sports and Youth Affairs

[B] Ministry of Human Resource Development

[C] Ministry of Urban Development and Housing

[D] Ministry of Earth Sciences

Q.10) In which State, Raksha Bandhan Day is celebrated as “Tree Safety Day”?

[A] Madhya Pradesh

[B] Haryana

[C] Uttar Pradesh

[D] Bihar

Q.11) Which expressway has been named as ‘Atal Path’?

[A] Agra-Lucknow expressway

[B] Purvanchal expressway

[C] Bundelkhand expressway

[D] Yamuna expressway

Q.12) Who is the present Chief Justice of the Supreme Court?

[A] D. Y. Chandrachud

[B] Ranjan Gogoi

[C] Madan B. Lokur

[D] J. Chelameswar

Q.13) ‘Operation Madad’ is related to

[A] Kerala flood relief

[B] Odisha Cyclone

[C] Anti-terror operation in Kasmir valley

[D] Kolkata bridge collapse

Q.14) Who is the current President of DMK?

[A] M. Karunanidhi

[B] M. K. Stalin

[C] C. N. Annadurai

[D] M. K. Muthu

Q.15) ‘Statue of Unity’ is related to whom?

[A] Vallabhbhai Patel

[B] Jawaharlal Nehru

[C] Deen Dayal Upadhyaya

[D] B. R. Ambedkar

Q.16) Which of the following has been declared as ‘Ayushman Bharat Divas’?

[A] Dussehra

[B] Dhanteras

[C] Diwali

[D] Ram Navami

Q.17) Mughalsarai Junction Railway Station has been officially renamed as

[A] Jai Prakash Narayan Station

[B] Ram Manohar Lohia Station

[C] Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Junction Railway Station

[D] Sardar Patel Station

Q.18) Who has been awarded ‘Legion of Merit’ Awards by the USA?

[A] Gen. Dalbir Singh Suhag

[B] Gen. Bipin Rawat

[C] Rajendrasinhji Jadeja

[D] Roy Bucher

Q.19) Baby Rani Maurya has been appointed as the Governor of which state?

[A] Meghalaya

[B] Chattisgarh

[C] Odisha

[D] Uttrakhand

Q.20) Which State has published the first ‘National Register of Citizen (NRC)’ of India?

[A] Sikkim

[B] Tripura

[C] Assam

[D] Goa

Q.21) Kilowatt-hour is the unit of

[A] energy

[B] power

[C] force

[D] momentum

Q.22) In a nuclear reactor, which one of the following is used as a fuel?

[A] Coal

[B] Uranium

[C] Radium

[D] Diesel

Q.23) In MRI machine, what type of waves is used?

[A] Sound wave

[B] X-Ray

[C] Ultrasound wave

[D] Magnetic Wave

Q.24) Which one of the following types of laser is used in laser printer?

[A] Excimer laser

[B] Dye laser

[C] Semiconductor laser

[D] Gas laser

Q.25) The power of lens is measured in

[A] watt

[B] lumen

[C] diopter

[D] candela

Q.26) ‘Fermi’ is a unit of

[A] mass

[B] length

[C] velocity

[D] time

Q.27) Computed tomography (CT) scan uses

[A] X-Rays

[B] ultrasound waves

[C] radio waves

[D] infrared waves

Q.28) In binary code, the number 7 is written as

[A] 110

[B] 111

[C] 10

[D] 100

Q.29) Which one of the following has the highest melting point?

[A] Gold

[B] Silver

[C] Silicon

[D] Copper

Q.30) The Headquarters of ISRO is in

[A] New Delhi

[B] Hyderabad

[C] Mumbai

[D] Bengaluru

Q.31) The discoverer of penicillin was

[A] Lord Lister

[B] Alaxender Fleming

[C] Karl Landsteiner

[D] Walter Reed

Q.32) The disease caused by virus is

[A] typhoid

[B] cholera

[C] common cold

[D] tetanus

Q.33) In nuclear reactors, electricity is produced by the process of

[A] nuclear fission

[B] nuclear fusion

[C] cold fusion

[D] superconductivity

Q.34) Which of the following countries has approved world’s first dengue vaccine?

[A] United Kindom

[B] Canada

[C] Mexico

[D] France

Q.35) First Indian satellite ‘Aryabhatta’ was launched in which year?

[A] 1970

[B] 1972

[C] 1975

[D] 1980

Q.36) What is TERLS?

[A] A rocket launching station

[B] A station launched by India

[C] A space science and technology centre

[D] A satellite launched by the USA

Q.37) ‘Ohm’ is a unit of Measuring

[A] resistance

[B] voltage

[C] current

[D] conductivity

Q.38) Which among the following principles is used by Bats?



[C] Law of reflaction

[D] Law of diffraction

Q.39) Baking soda is

[A] sodium carbohydrate

[B] sodium bicarbonate

[C] sodium sulphate

[D] sodium hydroxide

Q.40) Density of water is highest at the temperature of how many degrees Celsius?

[A] 0

[B] 4

[C] 50

[D] 100

Q.41) Gobar Gas contains mainly

[A] methane

[B] ethylene

[C] propylene

[D] acetylene

Q.42) The Bhopal Gas Tragedy was caused by the leakage of which gas?

[A] Phosgene

[B] Carbon dioxide

[C] Methyl isocyanate

[D] Chlorine

Q.43) Consider the following:

1. Submarine communication

2. AM radio

3. Shortwave Radio

4. Radar

Arrange the above in increasing frequency of the waves used in their applications.

[A] 4-3-2-1

[B] 1-2-3-4

[C] 2-1-4-3

[D] 2-3-4-1

Q.44) In which year, Sir C. V. Raman was awarded the Nobel Prize for Raman effect?

[A] 1927

[B] 1929

[C] 1930

[D] 1932

Q.45) The major component of the LPG is

[A] methane

[B] butane

[C] ethane

[D] propane

Q.46) Identify the metal which is non-toxic in nature.

[A] Chromium

[B] Gold

[C] Cadmium

[D] Cobalt

Q.47) Which of the following glands produces insulin?

[A] Pancreas

[B] Kidney

[C] Liver

[D] None of the above

Q.48) BCG immunization is for

[A] measles

[B] tuberculosis

[C] diphtheria

[D] leprosy

Q.49) Which vitamin is most readily destroyed by heat?

[A] Riboflavin

[B] Ascorbic acid

[C] Tocopherol

[D] Thiamine

Q.50) In which of the following regions, the ozone layer is present?

[A] Troposphere

[B] Ionosphere

[C] Stratosphere

[D] Exosphere

Q.51) Which of the following is the oldest culture of India?

[A] Palaeolithic culture

[B] Mesolithic culture

[C] Neolithic culture

[D] Vedic culture

Q.52) How many Vedas are there?

[A] One

[B] Two

[C] Three

[D] Four

Q.53) With which material Harappan culture tools were made?

[A] Gold

[B] Silver

[C] Copper/Bronze

[D] Iron

Q.54) Dockyard is unearthed from which Chalcolithic site?

[A] Mohenjo-Daro

[B] Harappa

[C] Lothal

[D] Daimabad

Q.55) The end date of the Pleistocene is

[A] 20000 years BP

[B] 10000 years BP

[C] 6000 years BP

[D] 2000 years BP

Q.56) The world famous rock-art site in India is situated at

[A] Adamgarh

[B] Gupteshwar

[C] Bhimbetka

[D] Kabra Pahar

Q.57) The first bead-making evidence is found from which of the following?

[A] Patne

[B] Bhimbetka

[C] Adamgarh

[D] Baghor

Q.58) From which pre-Harappan site, furrow evidences were found?

[A] Kalibangan

[B] Lothal

[C] Ahar

[D] Bara

Q.59) The earliest culture unearthed at Chirand is

[A] Neolithic culture

[B] Chalcolithic culture

[C] Mesolithic culture

[D] Historical culture

Q.60) Damdama site is situated in which State?

[A] Bihar

[B] Jharkhand

[C] Uttar Pradesh

[D] Rajasthan

Q.61) Which metal played an important role in second urbenization?

[A] Gold

[B] Silver

[C] Copper

[D] Iron

Q.62) The birthplace of Mahavira was at

[A] Kaushambi

[B] Kundagrama

[C] Sarnath

[D] Prayaga

Q.63) The name of the mother of Mahatma Buddha was

[A] Mahamaya

[B] Prabhavati

[C] Shakuntala

[D] Rajashri

Q.64) Pataliputra was the capital of which kingdom?

[A] Kashi

[B] Koshal

[C] Anga

[D] Magadha

Q.65) The capital of Avanti kingdom was

[A] Pataliputra

[B] Kaushambi

[C] Ujjain

[D] Gaya

Q.66) Kautilya or Chanakya was the Prime Minister of which Emperor?

[A] Chandragupta Maurya

[B] Chandragupta Vikramaditya

[C] Samudragupta

[D] Harsha

Q.67) Ashoka invaded which kingdom?

[A] Kashi

[B] Kaushambi

[C] Kalinga

[D] Anga

Q.68) Who convened the fourth Buddhist Council?

[A] Ajatashatru

[B] Ashoka

[C] Kanishka

[D] Harsha

Q.69) Chandragupta II was the ruler of which Dynasty/Empire?

[A] Mauryan

[B] Gupta

[C] Vardhan

[D] None of the above

Q.70) The’Chandra’ of Meherauli Iron Pillar Inscription is associated with

[A] Chandragupta Maurya

[B] Chandragupta

[C] Chandragupta II

[D] Chand Bardai

Q.71) The oldest coins of India are

[A] tribal coins

[B] punch-marked coins

[C] Naga coins

[D] Kushana coins

Q.72) Who was the first President of Independent India?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru

[B] Rajendra Prasad

[C] Sardar Patel

[D] Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q.73) Which ruler established a department for the Slaves (Gulam)?

[A] Firuz Shah Tugluq

[B] Razia Sultan

[C] Sikandar Lodi

[D] Mahmud Ghazni

Q.74) How many parts are there in Akbarnama?

[A] Two

[B] Three

[C] Four

[D] Five

Q.75) Rajinama is the Persian translation of which Hindi book?

[A] Ramayana

[B] Mahabharata

[C] Ramcharitmanas

[D] Kavitavali

Q.76) Who was the last Hindu ruler of Delhi?

[A] Hemchandra Vikramaditya

[B] Vikramaditya

[C] Dara Shikoh

[D] Veer Savarkar

Q.77) Where is British Fort William situated?

[A] Kolkata

[B] Chennai

[C] Hyderabad

[D] Delhi

Q.78) The writer of Abhigyan Shakuntalam is

[A] Kalidasa

[B] Tulsidasa

[C] Banabhatta

[D] Chand Bardai

Q.79) Din-i-Ilahi in 1582 AD was promulgated by

[A] Sher Shah Suri

[B] Babur

[C] Akbar

[D] Aurangzeb

Q.80) Who founded Khilaphat Andolan?

[A] Maulana Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali

[B] Jawaharlal Nehru

[C] Mahatma Gandhi

[D] Lal Bahadur Shastri

Q.81) Who started Benares Hindu University?

[A] Swami Dayanand

[B] Pt. Madan Mohan Malviya

[C] Gopal Krishna Gokhale

[D] Sucheta Kriplani

Q.82) Who is the writer of The Indian War of Independence, 1857?

[A] Raja Ram Mohan Ray

[B] B. D. Savarkar

[C] Sarojini Naidu

[D] Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.83) Who led Savinay Avagya Andolan?

[A] Jawaharlal Nehru

[B] Rajendra Prasad

[C] Lal Bahadur Shastri

[D] Mahatma Gandhi

Q.84) When did Chauri-chaura incidence take place?

[A] 8072

[B] January 26, 1857

[C] August 15, 1857

[D] 9491

Q.85) Where is RSS head office situated?

[A] Delhi

[B] Kolkata

[C] Mumbai

[D] Nagpur

Q.86) The State with highest percentage of geographical area under mountanious topography (i. e. more than 2000 meters) is

[A] Sikkim

[B] Himachal Pradesh

[C] Arunachal Pradesh

[D] Jammu and Kashmir

Q.87) Which one of the following major river basins of India is smallest in terms of basin area?

[A] Sabarmati

[B] Brahmani

[C] Pennar

[D] Mahi

Q.88) Identify the State sharing its boundary with maximum number of States

[A] Assam

[B] Uttar Pradesh

[C] Maharashtra

[D] Jharkhand

Q.89) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Doddabetta-Tamil Nadu

[B] Guru Shikhar-Rajasthan

[C] Gorakhnath-Gujarat

[D] Mahendragiri-Andhra Pradesh

Q.90) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the Lists:


a. Coal deposits

b. Petroleum reserves

c. Gold Deposits

d. Diamond deposits


1. Vindhyan system

2. Cambrian to Permian System

3. Eocene to Miocene system

4. Dharwar system Codes:

[A] a-2, b-4, c-1, d-3

[B] a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

[C] a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

[D] a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4

Q.91) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Coir Board-Thiruvanathapuram

[B] Spice Board-Cochin

[C] Coffee Board-Bengaluru

[D] Tea Board-Kolkata

Q.92) The largest salt-producing State in India is

[A] Tamil Nadu

[B] Andhra Pradesh

[C] Gujarat

[D] Maharashtra

Q.93) Wainganga is the tributary of

[A] Mahanadi

[B] Ganga

[C] Kaveri

[D] Godavari

Q.94) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the Lists:

List-I (Railway Zone)

a. East- Central

b. South-Central

c. West-Central

d. North-Central

List-II (Headquarters)

1. Secunderabad

2. Jabalpur

3. Allahabad

4. Hajipur


[A] a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4

[B] a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

[C] a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

[D] a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1

Q.95) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Highest percentage of forest coverage-Madhya Pradesh

[B] Highest percentage of area under mangroves-West Bengal

[C] Largest area under coral reefs-Andaman and Nicobar

[D] Largest area under wet-lands – Gujarat

Q.96) Grey and brown soils are mostly found in

[A] Maharashtra and Karnataka

[B] Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

[C] Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh

[D] Rajasthan and Gujarat

Q.97) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the Lists:


a. Platinum

b. Silver

c. Diamond

d. Tungsten


1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Karnataka

3. Odisha

4. Rajasthan


[A] a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

[B] a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

[C] a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

[D] a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

Q.98) Which one of the following major ports of India is renamed as Deen Dayal Port?

[A] Nhava Sheva

[B] Ennore

[C] Kandla

[D] Tuticorin

Q.99) Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes below the Lists:

List-I (Lake)

a. Pulicat

b. Harike

c. Nal Sarovar

d. Vedanthangal

List-II (State)

1. Punjab

2. Gujarat

3. Tamil Nadu

4. Andhra Pradesh


[A] a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

[B] a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

[C] a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

[D] a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2

Q.100) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] World’s largest single location solar power plant-Kamuthi

[B] World’s largest solar park-Kurnool

[C] Banasura Sagar Dam, floating solar power plant-Kerala

[D] Pavagada Solar Park-Gujarat

Paper 2: Law

Q.1) Which of the following is not an actionable claim?

[A] Right to claim arrears of rent of a house

[B] Right to claim arrears of maintenance

[C] Right to claim decretal sum

[D] Right to claim money payable under Life Insurance Policy

Q.2) The general principle of law is that “no man can transfer a better title in property that what he himself has got”. Exception to this rule is found in Section(s)

[A] 35 of the Transfer of Property Act

[B] 41 of the Transfer of Property Act

[C] 43 of the Transfer of Property Act

[D] 41 and 43 of the Transfer of Property Act

Q.3) No transfer of property can operate to create an interest which is to take effect after the lifetime of one or more persons living at the date of such transfer. This provision is covered under the

[A] rules against prospective transfer

[B] rules against restrictive transfer

[C] rules against perpetuity

[D] None of the above

Q.4) The principle of ‘lis pendens’ pertains to

[A] public utility

[B] auction sale

[C] bona fide purchase

[D] fraudulent transfer

Q.5) Mortgage by conditional sale is

[A] sale

[B] mortgage

[C] contract for sale

[D] neither sale nor mortgage

Q.6) The vested interest in property depends on the happening of an event which is

[A] of certain nature

[B] bound to happen

[C] of certain or uncertain nature

[D] none of the above

Q.7) A transfer his property to B for life and after his death to C and D equally to be divided between them or to the survivor of them. C dies during lifetime of B. D survives B. At B’s death, the property

[A] shall pass to any person

[B] shall pass to the person who is specifically named in the transfer

[C] shall pass to D

[D] None of the above

Q.8) There are some characteristics of usufructuary mortgage under Section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act:

1. There is no personal liability on the mortgager.

2. No time limit is fixed

3. Mortgagee takes the whole or part of the rent and profits.

[A] Only 1 and 2 are relevant

[B] Only 2 and 3 are relevant

[C] Only 1 is relevant

[D] All of the above are relevant

Q.9) “Such condition shall be void which is dependent on more than one possibility.” This principle was recognized later in:

[A] the principle in Whitby vs. Mitchell

[B] Cholmeley’s case

[C] Prabodh Kumar Das vs. Danmara Tea Co.

[D] Dyson vs. Farster

Q.10) A takes a loan of Rs. 5000 from B and mortgages his house as security. In the mortgage deed, it was also mentioned that if he could not pay the amount within 5 years, then B will have right to sell the house and recover his amount. If the money could not be recovered from sale of house, then A will be personally liable. It is

[A] mortgage by conditional sale

[B] English mortgage

[C] usufructuary mortgage

[D] simple mortgage

Q.11) Statutory recognition of the principles of equity in the Specific Relief Act is regarding

[A] specific performance

[B] injunction

[C] rectification and rescission

[D] All of the above

Q.12) “He who seeks equity must do equity” is particularly incorporated in which of the following?

[A] Section 9 of the Code of the Civil Procedure

[B] Section 38 of the Specific Relief Act

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] None of the above

Q.13) Section 48, 78 and 79 of the Transfer of Property Act provide the example of which of the following maxims?

[A] Where equities are equal, the first in time shall prevail

[B] Equity delights in equality

[C] He who seeks equity must do equity

[D] Equity follows the law

Q.14) “Where there is equal equity, the law shall prevail.” Which of the doctrines of Indian Law is based on this maxim?

[A] Doctrine of setoff

[B] Doctrine of marshalling

[C] Doctrine of election

[D] All of the above

Q.15) Choose the correct option.

[A] Under Indian Law, doctrine of election aims at compensation

[B] Under English Law, doctrine of election aims at forfeiture or confiscation

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B) is correct

Q.16) Which of the following persons is not necessary for creation of trust?

[A] Beneficiary

[B] Trustee

[C] Author of trust

[D] Legal representative

Q.17) Liability of trustee is provided under

[A] Section 23 to 29 of the Indian Trust Act

[B] Section 11 to 18 of the Indian Trust Act

[C] Section 55 to 69 of the Indian Trust Act

[D] Section 51 to 65 of the Indian Trust Act

Q.18) Liability for breach of trust has been provided in

[A] Section 23 of the Indian Trust Act

[B] Section 22 of the Indian Trust Act

[C] Section 24 of the Indian Trust Act

[D] Section 25 of the Indian Trust Act

Q.19) In case of specific performance of a contract, the rights of the parties are governed by the principle of

[A] law

[B] equity

[C] equity and law

[D] None of the above

Q.20) The relief by the way of mandatory injunction is

[A] discretionary

[B] prohibitory

[C] mandatory

[D] None of the above

Q.21) “Tortious liability arises from the breach of duty, primarily fixed by law.” Who said the statement?

[A] Salmond

[B] Winfield

[C] Fraser

[D] Underhill

Q.22) Whether for a wrong both tortious and criminal liability may arise?

[A] Only tortious liability may arise

[B] Only criminal liability may arise

[C] Both the liabilities may arise

[D] None of the above

Q.23) The pigeonhole theory was propounded by

[A] Salmond

[B] Winfield

[C] R. Pound

[D] Blackstone

Q.24) Mogul Steamship Co. vs. McGregor, Gow and Co. (1892) AC 25 belongs to which of the following maxims?

[A] Volenti non fit injuria

[B] Injuria sine damnum

[C] Damnum sine injuria

[D] Ubi jus ibi remedium

Q.25) The maxim ‘scienti non fit injuria’ means

[A] where there is no fault, there is no remedy

[B] mere knowledge does not imply consent to take risk

[C] mere giving consent does not imply to take risk

[D] scientific knowledge is not enough to cause injury

Q.26) “Right of action is extinguished by the death of one or other parties.” The statement is

[A] true

[B] false

[C] true except in certain cases

[D] false except in certain cases

Q.27) In the Law of Torts, nominal damages are awarded

[A] as a compensation for nominal injury

[B] for the recognition of legal right

[C] for the recognition of human sufferings

[D] as compensation for damages

Q.28) ‘Distress damage feasant’ means

[A] right to detain the things until compensation is paid

[B] right to get the compensation when there is infringement of legal right

[C] right to get the compensation will extinguish when death of the party caused

[D] None of the above

Q.29) “An unlawful interference with person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it” is known as tort of

[A] trespass

[B] nuisance

[C] negligence

[D] conversion

Q.30) In which case, fundamental test for determining duty to take care was laid down?

[A] Bourhill vs. Young

[B] Donoghue vs. Stevenson

[C] Haynes vs. Harwood

[D] Heaven vs. Pender

Q.31) Which of the following is not an element in establishing a case in libel?

[A] Publication

[B] A defamatory statement

[C] A section of the public who know less of the plaintiff

[D] Reference to the plaintiff

Q.32) If a person wants to bring an action under Law of Torts for the tort of public nuisance, he must have to prove that

[A] the injury was direct and substantial only to him

[B] the injury was criminal in nature

[C] the injury effects the public at large

[D] None of the above

Q.33) Prosecution’ under tort of ‘malicious prosecution’ means

[A] proceeding at a police station charging a person with a crime

[B] proceeding in a Court of Law charging a person with a crime

[C] proceeding undertaken by Public Prosecutor

[D] proceeding undertaken both by Police Officer and Public Prosecutor

Q.34) False Imprisonment’ means

[A] a false restraint of a person’s liberty without lawful justification

[B] a partial restraint of a person’s liberty without lawful justification

[C] a total restraint of a person’s liberty without lawful justification

[D] a person is imprisoned for a tort in false charge

Q.35) A person who knowingly and without sufficient justification induces another to break a contract with third person, whereby the third person suffers damage, is a tort. For the first time, it was established in which of the following cases?

[A] Ford vs. Lindsey

[B] Lumley vs. Gye

[C] Derry vs. Peak

[D] M. C. Manus vs. Bonis

Q.36) A contract, which ceases to be enforceable by law, ceases to be enforceable. It is known as

[A] unenforceable contract

[B] void contract

[C] voidable contract

[D] contingent contract

Q.37) The legal principle, which was laid down in the case of Harvey vs. Facey, was firstly followed by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following cases?

[A] Badri Prasad vs. State of MP

[B] Byomkesh Banerjee vs. Nani Gopal Banik

[C] D. I. MacPherson vs. M. N. Appanna

[D] Calill vs. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

Q.38) Which one of the following elements is not necessary for a contract?

[A] Competent parties

[B] Reasonable terms and conditions

[C] Free consent

[D] Lawful consideration

Q.39) In standard form contracts

[A] the individual has no choice but to accept

[B] the individual has many choices to accept or refuse

[C] the agreement is without consideration

[D] None of the above

Q.40) What would be the effect of mistake as to law enforce in India on a contract? The contract will be

[A] void

[B] voidable

[C] not void

[D] not voidable

Q.41) A guru (spiritual advisor) induced the Chela (his devotee) to gift him whole of his property to secure benefit of his soul in the heaven. This gift shall be

[A] void

[B] voidable

[C] valid

[D] immoral

Q.42) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is related with

[A] surety’s liability

[B] continuing guarantee

[C] revocation of continuing guarantee

[D] consideration for guarantee

Q.43) A continuing guarantee may be revoked for further transaction

[A] after a year

[B] after six years

[C] after three months

[D] at any time

Q.44) If the bailee, without the consent of the bailor, mixes the good of the bailor with his own goods in such a manner that it is impossible to separate the goods and deliver them back, the bailor is entitled to be

[A] compensated by the bailee for the loss of goods

[B] compensated by the bailee for 1/2 of the loss of the goods

[C] compensated by the bailee for 1/4 of the loss of goods

[D] civil imprisonment of maximum six months

Q.45) The bailment of goods as security for payment of a debt or performance of a promise is called

[A] mortgage by conditional sale

[B] pledge

[C] guarantee

[D] indemnity

Q.46) Who may employ an agent?

[A] Any major person

[B] Any person who is of sound mind

[C] Any major and person of sound mind

[D] A citizen of India

Q.47) In which of the following conditions can an agent sub-delegate his authority to another person?

[A] When it benefits the principal

[B] When it suits the agent

[C] When the agent becomes ill

[D] When commercial practice involves such delegation

Q.48) Indemnity-holder, acting within the scope of his authority, is entitled to recover from the promisor

[A] all damages which he may be compelled to pay in any suit

[B] all costs which he may be compelled to pay in any suit

[C] all sums which he may have paid under the terms of any compromise of any suit

[D] All of the above

Q.49) The case of Moses vs. MacFerlan deals with which of the following?

[A] Quasi-contract

[B] Contingent contract

[C] Doctrine of frustration

[D] Contract of indemnity

Q.50) When the parties to a contract agree to substitute the existing contract with a new contract, it is known as

[A] substitution

[B] novation

[C] frustration

[D] breach

Q.51) An unpaid seller can exercise the right of lien

[A] when he has delivered goods to the buyer

[B] when the buyer has lawfully obtained possession of goods

[C] when the seller has waived the right to lien

[D] when the buyer has become insolvent

Q.52) Which of the following is not included in the definition of goods?

[A] Actionable claims

[B] All movable properties

[C] Growing crops

[D] Grass

Q.53) Which of the following statement is not correct?

[A] Conditions and warranties are stipulations in the contract of sale

[B] A stipulation as a warranty may not be treated as condition

[C] Condition is a stipulation essential to main purpose of contract

[D] Warranty is a stipulation collateral to main purpose of contract

Q.54) A seller sells undergarments which cause skin disease to buyer. What is the liability of the seller?

[A] He is liable for breach of warranty

[B] He is liable for breach of a condition

[C] He is not liable

[D] The buyer should be careful

Q.55) Which of the following is not an exception to the doctrine of ‘nemo dat quod non habet’?

[A] Sale by person in possession under voidable contract

[B] Sale by seller in possession after sell

[C] Sale by buyer in possession before sell

[D] Sale by buyer in possession after sell

Q.56) Who among the following is a partner?

[A] A moneylender sharing the profits

[B] A person sharing the profits of business carried on by all or any of them

[C] A person sharing the return arising from joint property

[D] A seller of goodwill sharing the profits of business

Q.57) A partnership is partnership at will

[A] when no provision is made for duration of partnership

[B] when no provision is made for determination of partnership

[C] Both (A) and (B) are true

[D] Either (A) or (B) is true

Q.58) Which of the following is not essential ingredient of holding out u/s 28 of the Partnership Act?

[A] Representation as a partner

[B] Knowledge of representation

[C] Giving credit to the firm

[D] Representation without knowledge

Q.59) Which of the following is not correct about a minor?

[A] He cannot become a partner

[B] He can be admitted to the benefits of partnership

[C] He is personally liable for the acts of the firm

[D] He can elect to become or not to become a partner on attaining the majority

Q.60) Which of the following is not a condition precedent for filing a suit u/s 69 of the Partnership Act?

[A] The firm should be registered

[B] Person suing should be shown as a partner in the register of firms

[C] The enforcement of a right arising from contract or conferred by the Act

[D] The enforcement of any statutory right

Q.61) When a negotiable Instrument is dishonoured, the liable party pays compensation to

[A] holder

[B] bank

[C] endorser

[D] court

Q.62) Which of the following is not an example of Negotiable Instrument?

[A] Promissory Note

[B] Bill of Exchange

[C] Share Certificate

[D] Cheque

Q.63) A draws a cheque in favour of B, a minor. B endorses it in favour of C and C endorses in favour of D. The cheque is dishonoured. Which of the following is not correct about liabilities of the parties?

[A] C and D can claim from B

[B] C can claim payment from A

[C] D can claim against C and A

[D] C and D cannot claim from B

Q.64) Which of the following is not correct with regards to presentation for acceptance?

[A] Only holder of the bill or his agent can present the bill

[B] Drawer himself can present the bill

[C] If the bill has been negotiated before acceptance, endorse can present the bill

[D] The bill cannot be presented to legal presentation in case of death of drawee

Q.65) Which of the following statements is correct in relation to bouncing of a cheque?

[A] Offence of cheque bouncing is a compoundable offence.

[B] Every trial of cheque bouncing shall be concluded within 3 months

[C] In trial of such cases, provisions of u/s 262 to 265 of CrPC will not apply

[D] In case of conviction in summary trial of such cases, Magistrate shall pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term of 2 years.

Q.66) An application for prevention of oppression and mismanagement in a company should be made to the

[A] High Court

[B] Central Government

[C] National Company Law Tribunal

[D] Registrar of Companies

Q.67) For dissolution of a company, the Tribunal shall pass order

[A] immediately after winding-up order

[B] when affairs of the company are completely wound up

[C] at the instance of the Central Government

[D] at the instance of the Company Law Board

Q.68) Which of the following statements is not correct?

[A] A company cannot have more than one Manager at the same time

[B] A company can have more than one Manager at the same time

[C] A firm cannot be appointed as Manager of a company

[D] A manager can be appointed for a period of 5 years at a time.

Q.69) A Director appointed to fill up casual vacancy will hold office

[A] for a term of 5 years

[B] for a term of 3 years

[C] up to next meeting of the Board

[D] up to date of expiry of term of office of outgoing Director

Q.70) Match list-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:


a. Royal British Bank vs. Turquand

b. Salomon vs. Salomon & Co. Ltd.

c. Foss vs. Harbottle

d. Ashbury Railway Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. Vs. Riche


1. Corporate Personality

2. Rule of Majority

3. Doctrine of ultra vires

4. Indoor Management


[A] a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

[B] a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

[C] a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

[D] a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4

Q.71) The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been divided into ………………… Parts and …………… Chapters.

[A] 2,10

[B] 3,11

[C] 4,12

[D] 3,12

Q.72) A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A’s wife. B denies that C is A’s wife, but the Court convicts B of adultery. Afterwards , C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A’s lifetime. C says that she never was A’s wife. The judgment against B is

[A] relevant as against C

[B] irrelevant as against C

[C] relevant and admissible against C

[D] None of the above

Q.73) Law of evidence is

[A] a substantive law

[B] an adjective law

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.74) Electronic record in proper custody gives rise to a presumption as to the digital signature, to be affixed by that particular person under Section 90A of the Indian Evidence Act, if the electronic record is

[A] 20 years old

[B] 15 years old

[C] 10 years old

[D] 5 years old

Q.75) ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in

[A] Section 31 of the Indian Evidence Act

[B] Section 32 of the Indian Evidence Act

[C] Section 60 of the Indian Evidence Act

[D] Section 61 of the Indian Evidence Act

Q.76) Section 105 of the Indian Evidence Act applies to

[A] criminal trials

[B] civil trials

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.77) Which of the following is not correctly matched

[A] Hostile witness-Section 154

[B] Burden of proof as to ownership-Section 110

[C] Refreshing memory-Section 159

[D] Profession communication-Section 124

Q.78) Classification of offences is given in Cr.P.C under

[A] Section 320

[B] the First Schedule

[C] the Second Schedule

[D] Section 482

Q.79) It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate within 24 hours of his arrest under

[A] Section 56 of the Cr.P.C

[B] Section 57 of the Cr.P.C

[C] Section 58 of the Cr.P.C

[D] Section 59 of the Cr.P.C

Q.80) Under Section 167 of Cr.P.C, the Magistrate can authorize detention for a total period of 90 days during investigation in case of offences punishable

[A] with death

[B] with imprisonment for life

[C] with imprisonment for a term not less than 10 years

[D] All of the above

Q.81) The term ‘victim’ is defined under

[A] Section 2(w)

[B] Section 2(wa)

[C] Section 2(u)

[D] None of the above

Q.82) Every person aware of the commission of an offence punishable under following Sections is bound to give information thereof to the nearest Magistrate or Police Officer

[A] Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code

[B] Section 302 of the Indian Penal Code

[C] Section 324 of the Indian Penal Code

[D] Section 448 of the Indian Penal Code

Q.83) A decision in a suit may operate as ‘res judicata’ against persons not expressly named as parties to the suit by virtue of Explanation

[A] II to Section 11 of the CPC

[B] IV to Section 11 of the CPC

[C] VI to Section 11 of the CPC

[D] VIII to Section 11 of the CPC

Q.84) The court may impose a fine for default upon a person required to give evidence or to produce documents directed under Section 30(b) of CPC, and such fine as per Section 32© is not to exceed

[A] Rs. 500

[B] Rs. 1000

[C] Rs. 5000

[D] Rs. 10,000

Q.85) Appointment of receiver has been dealt with

[A] under Order XLIV

[B] under Order CLII

[C] under Order XL

[D] under Order XLV

Q.86) The provision for substituted service of summons on the defendant(s) has been made under

[A] Order V, Rule 19 of CPC

[B] Order V, Rule 19A of CPC

[C] Order V, Rule 20 of CPC

[D] Order V, Rule 21 of CPC

Q.87) In cases of urgent or immediate relief, where leave to investigate the suit without service of notice under Section 86 of CPC has been granted

[A] no interim or otherwise, ex parte relief can be granted

[B] interim or otherwise, ex parte relief can be granted

[C] interim or otherwise, ex parte relief may be granted under certain circumstances

[D] Either A or C

Q.88) The arbitrator in case of international commercial arbitration is appointed by

[A] the parties themselves

[B] the Attorney-General of India

[C] the Chief Justice of India

[D] Both A and C

Q.89) The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Act, 2015 came into force on

[A] 23rd October, 2015

[B] 31st December, 2015

[C] 23rd September, 2015

[D] None of the above

Q.90) The decree or orders made by small cause Courts are revisable by the

[A] District Court

[B] High Court

[C] Both A and B

[D] None of the above

Q.91) Clause (k) to Article 51A was added by

[A] the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992

[B] the Constitution (85rd Amendment) Act, 2001

[C] the Constitution (86rd Amendment) Act, 2002

[D] the Constitution (93rd Amendment) Act, 2005

Q.92) In which of the following cases, free and fair election is recognized as basic structure of the Indian Constitution?

[A] Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain

[B] Golaknath vs. State of Punjab

[C] K. Prabhakarn vs. P. Jayaranjan

[D] Minerva Mills vs. Union of India

Q.93) Which of the following cases is not related to the doctrine of severability?

[A] Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu

[B] RMDC vs. Union of India

[C] Minerva Mills vs. Union of India

[D] A. K. Gopalan vs. State of Madras

Q.94) The parliament has power to legislate with respect to a matter in the State list, provided it is in the

[A] public interest

[B] national interest

[C] central interest

[D] regional interest

Q.95) “Courts are flooded with large number of PILs, so it is desirable for Courts to filter out frivolous petitions and dismiss them with costs.” In which of the following judgments, it was held?

[A] M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India

[B] Dharampal vs. State of UP

[C] Holicow Pictures Pvt. Ltd. Vs. Premchandra Mishra

[D] PUCL vs. Union of India

Q.96) Who among the following expressed the view that the Indian Constitution is federal as much as it establishes what may be called a dual polity?

[A] Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

[B] Sir William Ivor Jennings

[C] Sir B. N. Rau

[D] Prof. K. C. Wheare

Q.97) The law declared by the Supreme Court becomes law of the land under

[A] Article 131

[B] Article 136

[C] Article 141

[D] Article 151

Q.98) The power of the President of India to issue an ordinance is a/an

[A] legislative power

[B] executive power

[C] quasi-judicial power

[D] judicial power

Q.99) In first instance, the President can issue a proclamation of financial emergency for a period of

[A] fifteen days

[B] two months

[C] one month

[D] six months

Q.100) In which of the following landmark judgments, right to privacy has been declared as a fundamental right?

[A] Shreya Ghoshal vs. State of UP

[B] Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs. Union of India

[C] Narendra vs. K. Meena

[D] Kharak Singh vs. State of UP

Q.101) In which of the following judgments of the Supreme Court, Triple Talak was declared as unconstitutional?

[A] Shayara Bano vs. Union of India

[B] Gulshan Praveen vs. Union of India

[C] Both A and B

[D] None of the above

Q.102) Which of the following does not find place in the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

[A] Liberty of thought and expression

[B] Economic justice for all

[C] Education for everyone

[D] Dignity of the individual

Q.103) Prof. K. C. Wheare said that the Constitution of India is

[A] weak federation

[B] non-federal

[C] strong federation

[D] quasi-federal

Q.104) In which case, the dissolution of Bihar Legislative Assembly by the Governor before formation of government was declared unconstitutional?

[A] Banarsi Das vs. Teeku Dutta and Others

[B] Rameshwar Prasad vs. Union of India

[C] K. K. Misra vs. State of Bihar

[D] B. P. Singhal vs. Union of India

Q.105) A member of the State Public Service Commission can be removed on the ground of misbehaviour only after an inquiry has been held by

[A] the Supreme Court of India, on reference being made to it by the President

[B] the Governor through High Court

[C] the Chairman of Board

[D] a Joint Parliamentary Committee

Q.106) “Carry forward rule is ultra vires” was held in the case

[A] Devadasan vs. Union of India

[B] B. N. Tiwari vs. Union of India

[C] State of Kerala vs. N. M. Thomas

[D] Balaji vs. State of Mysore

Q.107) Which one of the following is not correct?

[A] Natural justice implicit in Article 21

[B] Right to privacy is a fundamental right

[C] Right to abroad is not a fundamental right

[D] Right to life includes right to health

Q.108) Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of

[A] morality

[B] health

[C] security of the State

[D] public order

Q.109) Legal maxim ‘autrefois’ is related to

[A] double jeopardy

[B] retrospective operation

[C] self-incrimination

[D] ex post facto law

Q.110) “The principle of sovereign immunity will not apply to a proceeding for award of compensation for violation of fundamental rights.” In which case, the Supreme Court of India held the above view?

[A] Nilabati Behera vs. State of Orissa

[B] Rudal Shah vs. State of Bihar

[C] Kasturi Lal vs. State of UP

[D] Ram Singh vs. State of Punjab

Q.111) According to A. V. Dicey, in India the ‘rule of law’ is embodied in

[A] Article 12 of the Constitution of India

[B] Article 13 of the Constitution of India

[C] Article 14 of the Constitution of India

[D] Article 21 of the Constitution of India

Q.112) “Administrative law is a study of power in a developing society. Accountability of the holders of public power for the ruled is the focal point of this formulation.” Who among the following jurists has given this definition?

[A] A. V. Dicey

[B] Davis

[C] Sir William Ivor Jennings

[D] Prof. Upendra Baxi

Q.113) In which case, Chief Justice Ray said that ” the Constitution is the rule of law and that no one can rise above the rule of law in the Constitution”?

[A] Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

[B] ADM Jabalpur vs. S. K. Shukla

[C] S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India

[D] Bhagat Raja vs. Union of India

Q.114) Which of the following case is not related with rule of law?

[A] Indira Gandhi vs. Raj Narain

[B] ADM Jabalpur vs. S. K. Shukla

[C] S. P. Gupta vs. Union of India

[D] Jaisinghani vs. Union of India

Q.115) Which doctrine of administrative law is a ‘dilutory’ doctrine because of many exceptions?

[A] Doctrine of separation of powers

[B] Rule of law

[C] Doctrine of pleasure

[D] Doctrine of proportionality

Q.116) There are bulk of laws which govern people and which come not from the legislature but from the chambers of administrator. This is called delegated legislation and it is different from

[A] quasi-legislative action

[B] administrative rule-making power

[C] subordinate legislation

[D] executive legislation

Q.117) Delegated legislation must be controlled so that it can be properly exercised. What is the control of delegated legislation?

[A] Parliamentary control

[B] Procedural control

[C] Judicial control

[D] All of the above

Q.118) The test for determining bias is known as

[A] civil liability test

[B] criminal liability test

[C] reasonable likelihood test

[D] collective responsibility test

Q.119) ‘Rule of law’ means

[A] rule of nature

[B] rule of procedure

[C] rule of man

[D] pervasiveness of the spirit of law and to avoid arbitrariness

Q.120) “Natural justice is universal fact of secular life which has given a new life to legislature administration and judicial adjudication and provided way to objective life. These rules are part of social justice.” This statement was given by

[A] Justice Prafullachndra Natwarlal Bhagwati

[B] Justice Vaidyanathapuram

[C] Rama Iyer Krishna Iyer

[D] Justice Hans Raj Khanna

Q.121) Which of the following doctrines was/were developed by the Court to control the administrative actions in India?

[A] Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel and Doctrine of Legitimate Expectations

[B] Doctrine of Separation of Power, Judicial Activism and Rule of Law

[C] Both A and B

[D] None of the above

Q.122) A writ of mandamus will not lie against the

[A] President of India

[B] Parliament

[C] Local Authorities

[D] Courts and Tribunals

Q.123) Article 310 of the Indian Constitution embodies the

[A] doctrine of pleasure

[B] Doctrine of Separation of Power, Judicial Activism and Rule of Law

[C] doctrine of proportionality

[D] doctrine of res judicata

Q.124) What is the effect of violation of the rule ‘audi alteram partem’ on an administrative action?

[A] Mere irregularity

[B] Null and void

[C] An illegality

[D] Voidable

Q.125) In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that the principles of natural justice are applicable to administrative proceedings also?

[A] M. C. Mehta vs. Union of India

[B] Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India

[C] A. K. Kraipak vs. Union of India

[D] Smt. Indira Nehru Gandhi vs. Raj Narain

Q.126) When reviewing administrative action, the Court’s duty is to confine itself to the question of legality. That is/are the ground(s) for judicial review?

[A] Committed an error of law or exceeded its powers

[B] Breach of natural justice or decision without reason

[C] Both A and B

[D] None of the above

Q.127) Writ of Prohibition cannot be issued against

[A] executive body

[B] judicial body

[C] quasi-judicial body

[D] None of the above

Q.128) Writ of quo-warranto can be filed by

[A] any person aggrieved by public office

[B] an executive in his official capacity

[C] any private person whether aggrieved or not

[D] Only A and B

Q.129) The idea of Ombudsman was first suggested by who among the following?

[A] Dr B. R. Ambedkar

[B] Dr. Rajendra Prasad

[C] Justice P. N. Bhagwati

[D] Motilal Chimanlal Setalvad

Q.130) The action of Administrative Tribunal is considered as

[A] purely judicial

[B] purely administrative

[C] quasi-judicial

[D] All of the above

Q.131) Mitakshara is a commentary on

[A] Manu Smriti

[B] Yajnavalkya Smriti

[C] Narada Smriti

[D] Prashara Smriti

Q.132) By the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005

[A] all Hindu women have become coparceners in a family

[B] wife of a coparcener has become a coparcener

[C] daughter-in-law has become a coparcener

[D] daughter of a coparcener has become a coparcener

Q.133) Marriage of a Hindu coparcener with a Hindu girl or with any other under the Special Marriage Act, 1954

[A] does not have any effect on joint family status of the coparcener

[B] automatically severs his membership of the coparcenary and of the joint family

[C] A Hindu coparcener is not allowed to marry under the Special Marriage Act, 1954

[D] His status as joint family member and a coparcener is suspended for some time

Q.134) Pregnancy of a girl at the time of her marriage under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

[A] will not affect the marriage

[B] will make the marriage ipso facto invalid

[C] will be ground for making the marriage as void

[D] will be a ground for making the marriage as voidable

Q.135) Sapinda relationship under the Hindu Law towards the father’s and mother’s side extends upto

[A] six degrees towards the father’s side and three degrees towards the mother’s side

[B] five degrees towards the father’s side and four degrees towards the mother’s side

[C] five degrees towards the father’s side and three degrees towards the mother’s side

[D] seven degrees towards the father’s side and five degrees towards the mother’s side

Q.136) A decree of judicial separation passed by a competent Court between the parties to a marriage

[A] brings the marriage relationship between the spouses to an end

[B] makes the parties free to marry any other person

[C] does affect the marital relationship between the spouses and they are no more husband and wife

[D] does not affect the marital relationship but suspends the conjugal relationship till the period of decree

Q.137) Under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, daughter’s son and father of a male Hindu are legal heirs and they are placed as the following

[A] Both are placed as class I heir of the Schedule

[B] Father is placed in class I and daughter’s son is placed in classes II of the Schedule

[C] Daughter’s son is placed as class I and father as class II heir of the Schedule

[D] Both are class II heirs of the Schedule

Q.138) Marriage of a Hindu male or female under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 with a person of unsound mind or one suffering from mental disorder is

[A] not valid

[B] void

[C] voidable contract

[D] perfectly valid

Q.139) A child to be adopted under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, 1956

[A] should be a child belonging to any religion

[B] should be a child belonging to Hindu religion and below the age of 15 years

[C] may or may not be a Hindu but below the age of 18 years

[D] may or may not be a Hindu but below the age of 21 years

Q.140) Under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a marriage is treated as void, if it

[A] contravenes the condition given under Section 5(i) and (ii) of the Hindu Marriage Act

[B] contravenes the condition given under Section 5(ii) and (iii) of the Hindu Marriage Act

[C] contravenes the condition given under Section 5(i), (iii) and (v) of the Hindu Marriage Act

[D] contravenes the condition given under Section 5(i), (iv) and (v) of the Hindu Marriage Act

Q.141) A marriage prohibited under the Mohammedan Law by reason of difference of religion, if done, is

[A] valid

[B] voidable

[C] irregular

[D] Void

Q.142) According to Section 4 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, apostasy from Islam of a Muslim wife

[A] will dissolve her marriage ipso facto

[B] will not dissolve her marriage ipso facto

[C] dissolves her marriage and she loses her claim of dower

[D] dissolves her marriage but she does not lose her claim of dower

Q.143) Which of the following is not essential for a valid gift or Hiba under the Mohammedan Law?

[A] Declaration of gift

[B] Acceptance of Gift

[C] Delivery of possession of the property by the donor to the donee

[D] Written documentary proof of the gift

Q.144) Which one of the following is the leading case under the Mohammedan Law on widow’s right to retain possession of her husband’s property?

[A] Mohd. Sadiq vs. Fakhr Jahan

[B] Mohd. Ahmed Khan vs. Shah Bano Begum

[C] Mohd. Mumtaz vs. Zubaida Jan

[D] Mst. Maina Bibi vs. Chaudhri Vakil Ahmed

Q.145) Who under the Mohammedan Law can claim right of pre-emption?

[A] Shafi-i-Sharik (a co-sharer in the property)

[B] Shafi-i-Khalit (a participator in immunities and appendages)

[C] Shafi-i-Jar (an owner of contiguous immovable property)

[D] All of them

Q.146) In favour of who among the following a bequest by a Muslim is valid?

[A] A son

[B] A widow

[C] A grandson in case of a predeceased son

[D] All of them

Q.147) In case of Wakf, the Wakf property vests in the

[A] Wakif

[B] Mutawalli

[C] Almighty

[D] Beneficiaries

Q.148) By the third pronouncement (utterance) of ‘Talaq’, which kind of ‘Talaq’ becomes effective?

[A] Talaq-e-Hassan

[B] Talaq-e-Ahsan

[C] Talaq-e-Tafweez

[D] None of the above

Q.149) In Sunni Law of Inheritance, the total number of sharers is

[A] 10

[B] 15

[C] 13

[D] 12

Q.150) Who is a primary heir under Sunni Law?

[A] True grandfather

[B] True grandmother

[C] Full sister

[D] None of them

BJS 2018


Paper 1: General Studies

Q.1)B Q.2)A Q.3)C Q.4)A Q.5)B Q.6)B Q.7)D Q.8)A Q.9)B Q.10)D Q.11)C Q.12)B Q.13)A Q.14)B Q.15)A Q.16)B Q.17)C Q.18)A Q.19)D Q.20)C Q.21)A Q.22)B

Q.23)D Q.24)C Q.25)C Q.26)B Q.27)A Q.28)B Q.29)C Q.30)D Q.31)B Q.32)C Q.33)A Q.34)C Q.35)C Q.36)A Q.37)A Q.38)A Q.39)B Q.40)B Q.41)A Q.42)C

Q.43)B Q.44)C Q.45)B Q.46)B Q.47)A Q.48)B Q.49)B Q.50)C Q.51)A Q.52)D Q.53)C Q.54)C Q.55)B Q.56)C Q.57)A Q.58)A Q.59)A Q.60)C Q.61)D Q.62)B

Q.63)A Q.64)D Q.65)C Q.66)A Q.67)C Q.68)C Q.69)B Q.70)C Q.71)B Q.72)B Q.73)A Q.74)B Q.75)B Q.76)A Q.77)A Q.78)A Q.79)C Q.80)A Q.81)B Q.82)B

Q.83)D Q.84)A Q.85)D Q.86)C Q.87)A Q.88)B Q.89)D Q.90)C Q.91)A Q.92)C Q.93)D Q.94)B Q.95)A Q.96)D Q.97)A Q.98)C Q.99)B Q.100)D

Paper 2: Law

Q.1)C Q.2)D Q.3)C Q.4)A Q.5)B Q.6)B Q.7)C Q.8)D Q.9)A Q.10)D Q.11)D Q.12)D Q.13)A Q.14)D Q.15)D Q.16)D Q.17)A Q.18)A Q.19)C Q.20)A Q.21)B

Q.22)C Q.23)A Q.24)C Q.25)B Q.26)C Q.27)B Q.28)A Q.29)B Q.30)B Q.31)C Q.32)A Q.33)B Q.34)C Q.35)B Q.36)B Q.37)C Q.38)B Q.39)A Q.40)D Q.41)B

Q.42)A Q.43)D Q.44)A Q.45)B Q.46)C Q.47)D Q.48)D Q.49)A Q.50)B Q.51)D Q.52)A Q.53)B Q.54)B Q.55)C Q.56)B Q.57)D Q.58)D Q.59)C Q.60)D Q.61)A

Q.62)C Q.63)A Q.64)D Q.65)A Q.66)C Q.67)B Q.68)B Q.69)D Q.70)A Q.71)B Q.72)B Q.73)B Q.74)D Q.75)B Q.76)A Q.77)D Q.78)B Q.79)B Q.80)D Q.81)B

Q.82)B Q.83)C Q.84)C Q.85)C Q.86)C Q.87)A Q.88)D Q.89)A Q.90)B Q.91)C Q.92)A Q.93)C Q.94)B Q.95)C Q.96)A Q.97)C Q.98)A Q.99)B Q.100)B Q.101)C

Q.102)C Q.103)D Q.104)B Q.105)A Q.106)A Q.107)C Q.108)C Q.109)A Q.110)B Q.111)C Q.112)D Q.113)B Q.114)C Q.115)A Q.116)D Q.117)D Q.118)C

Q.119)D Q.120)B Q.121)C Q.122)A Q.123)A Q.124)B Q.125)C Q.126)C Q.127)A Q.128)C Q.129)D Q.130)C Q.131)B Q.132)D Q.133)B Q.134)D Q.135)C

Q.136)D Q.137)C Q.138)C Q.139)B Q.140)D Q.141)C Q.142)B Q.143)D Q.144)D Q.145)D Q.146)C Q.147)C Q.148)A Q.149)D Q.150)D

Important Links

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

Law Aspirants: Ultimate Test Prep Destination

Source link

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *