Download Bihar Judiciary Prelims Examination 2016 Solved Paper Pdf

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Bihar Judiciary Prelims Paper 2016

Paper 1: General Studies

Q.1) Who was the founder of Deccan Education Society?

[A] Jyotiba Phule

[B] Firoz Shah Mehta

[C] M.G. Ranade

[D] Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.2) The manuscript of Arthashastra was discovered by

[A] Sir William Jones

[B] Shamshastri

[C] Ram Gopal Bhandarkar

[D] James Mill

Q.3) Who was the author of the famous text, Mudrarakshasa?

[A] Vishakhadutta

[B] Kalidas

[C] Sudraka

[D] Rajshekhar

Q.4) The first Buddhist Council was summoned by

[A] Chandragupta Maurya

[B] Ashoka

[C] Ajatasatru

[D] Kanishka

Q.5) Mahatma Buddha gave his first sermon at

[A] Lumbini

[B] Bodh Gaya

[C] Sarnath

[D] Kapilvastu

Q.6) Which archaeological site is associated with the Mauryan palace?

[A] Kaushambi

[B] Taxila

[C] Hastinapur

[D] Kumrahar

Q.7) Which Rock Edict of Ashoka mentions the Kalinga War?

[A] (XII) Thirteenth

[B] (VIII) Eighth

[C] (II) Second

[D] (V) Fifth

Q.8) Rajarajeshwara temple at Tanjore is the finest example of which architecture?

[A] Pallava

[B] Chalukya

[C] Chola

[D] Pandya

Q.9) The system of `Dagh’ and ‘Hullya’ was introduced by

[A] Illutmish

[B] Ala-ud-din Khilji

[C] Balban

[D] Firuz Shah Tughlaq

Q.10) English traveller William Hawkins visited India during the time of which Mughal emperor?

[A] Shah Jahan

[B] Akbar

[C] Aurangzeb

[D] Jahangir

Q.11) The ‘Iqtadarl’ system was introduced by

[A] Balban

[B] Illtumish

[C] Ala-ud-din Khilji

[D] Firuz Shah Tughlaq

Q.12) What was the name of the Persian translation of Mahabharata?

[A] Sakinat-ul-Auliya

[B] Sirrul Asrar

[C] Anwar-i-Suhaili

[D] Razmnama

Q.13) Krishnadevaraya of the Vijayanagar empire was a contemporary of

[A] Akbar

[B] Firuz Shah Tughlaq

[C] Babur.

[D] Balban

Q.14) Baburnama was composed in which language?

[A] Turkish

[B] Persian

[C] Arabic

[D] Urdu

Q.15) ‘Servants of Indian Society’ was founded by

[A] Gopal Krishna Gokhale

[B] Bal Gangadhar Tilak

[C] Mahatma Gandhi

[D] Govind Ranade

Q.16) Ancient Monuments Preservation Act, 1904, was passed during the time of which Governor-General?

[A] Lord Minto

[B] Lord Hardinge

[C] Lord Curzon

[D] Lord Linlithgow

Q.17) Who was the author of History of British India?

[A] James Mill

[B] V.A. Smith

[C] V.D. Savarkar

[D] R.C. Majumdar

Q.18) Which was the first newspaper published in India?

[A] Bengal Gazette

[B] Calcutta Gazette

[C] Bombay Herald

[D] Bengal Journal

Q.19) ‘Go back to the Vedas’. Who gave this slogan?

[A] Raja Ram Mohan Roy

[B] Keshav Chandra Sen

[C] Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

[D] Swami Dayanand Saraswati

Q.20) Arya Samaj was established in

[A] 1870

[B] 1872

[C] 1873

[D] 1875

Q.21) The worst famine in India under the British rule occurred during

[A] 1860-1861

[B] 1876-1878

[C] 1896-1897

[D] 1899-1900

Q.22) Who among the following women was associated with the revolutionary movement?

[A] Toru Dutt

[B] Ramabai

[C] Bhikaji Cama

[D] Gangabai

Q.23) Simon Commission visited India in

[A] 1927

[B] 1928

[C] 1929

[D] 1930

Q.24) Under which Act were the Muslims provided separate electorates in British India?

[A] Indian Council Act, 1892

[B] Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909

[C] Indian Council Act, 1861

[D] Montagu-Chelmsford Reform, 1919

Q.25) Who among the following woman social reformers was called ‘Pandit’?

[A] Gangabai

[B] Ramabai

[C] Annie Besant

[D] Sister Subbalakshmi

Q.26) Where did the Indigo Revolt take place?

[A] Orissa

[B] Uttar Pradesh

[C] Bengal

[D] Maharashtra

Q.27) Queen Victoria’s proclamation took place in

[A] 1856

[B] 1858

[C] 1859

[D] 1860

Q.28) Who among the following authors has called the Revolt of 1857 as the First War of Independence?

[A] R.C. Majumdar

[B] S.N. Sen

[C] V.D. Savarkar

[D] Ashok Mehta

Q.29) ‘Abhinav Bharat’ founded in 1904 was

[A] a secret organization of revolutionary activities

[B] a newspaper

[C] a cultural organization

[D] a trade union movement

Q.30) “History is a continuous process of interaction between past and present”. Who said this?

[A] E.H. Carr

[B] Charles Firth

[C] Karl Marx

[D] V.A. Smith

Q.31) The famine code for India was recommended by which Commission?

[A] MacDonnell Commission

[B] Campbell Commission

[C] Lyall Commission

[D] Strachey Commission

Q.32) Who was associated with the newspaper, Mooknayak?

[A] Jyotiba Phule

[B] B.R. Ambedkar

[C] M.N. Roy

[D] Annie Besant

Q.33) Who among the following has called Tilak as `Father of Indian Unrest’?

[A] Mahatma Gandhi

[B] Jawaharlal Nehru

[C] Powell Price

[D] Valentine Chirol

Q.34) Who among the following persons was considered by Gandhiji as his ‘Political Guru’?

[A] Dadabhai Naoroji

[B] M.G. Ranade

[C] Gopal Krishna Gokhale

[D] Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Q.35) New India and Commonweal newspapers were associated with

[A] R.C. Dutt

[B] Mahatma Gandhi

[C] Raja Ram Mohan Roy

[D] Annie Besant

Q.36) ITCZ stands for

[A] Inter Temperate Convergence Zone

[B] Intra Tropical Convergence Zone

[C] India-Thailand Convergence Zone

[D] Inter Tropical Convergence Zone

Q.37) On which river, the Rana Pratap Sagar Dam is constructed?

[A] Ghaghara

[B] Kosi

[C] Yamuna

[D] Chambal

Q.38) Amarkantak is the source head of

[A] Son, Narmada and Mahanadi

[B] Son, Chambal and Betwa

[C] Narmada, Ben Ganga and Kene

[D] Mahanadi, Tapti and Son

Q.39) Match the following:


(a) Bhotiya

(b) Gujjar

(c) Gaddi

(d) Dafla


(1) Arunachal Pradesh

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Kashmir

(4) Uttarakhand

[A] a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1

[B] a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4

[C] a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

[D] a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4

Q.40) The largest reserves of sal forest is found in

[A] Nilgiri hills

[B] Dun valley

[C] Aravallies

[D] Assam

Q.41) Telangana State is surrounded by which of the following groups of States?

[A] Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Odisha

[B] Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Maharashtra and Karnataka

[C] Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Chhattisgarh

[D] Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh

Q.42) Main Boundary Thrust (MBT) separates

[A] Ganga Plain and Siwaliks

[B] Siwaliks and Lesser Himalaya

[C] Lesser Himalaya and Greater Himalaya

[D] Greater Himalaya and Trans-Himalaya

Q.43) The valley of flowers is located in

[A] Himachal Himalaya

[B] Garhwal Himalaya

[C] Kashmir Himalaya

[D] Nepal Himalaya

Q.44) In India, coal is found in the geological formation of

[A] Dharwar

[B] Vindhyan

[C] Gondwana

[D] Kadapa

Q.45) Rohtang pass connects the valleys of:

[A] Bhagirathi and Alakananda

[B] Kali and Dholi

[C] Kulu and Spiti

[D] Jhelam and Ravi

Q.46) The basic reason of winter rainfall in north-western part of India is

[A] south-west monsoon

[B] trade wind

[C] retreating of monsoon

[D] western disturbances

Q.47) Laterite soil mostly found in

[A] Karnataka

[B] Punjab

[C] Uttar Pradesh

[D] West Bengal

Q.48) Which one of the following pairs is not correct?

[A] Bhakra Nangal Dam-Sutlej

[B] Sardar Sarovar Dam-Narmada

[C] Hirakund Dam-Mahanadi

[D] Nagarjuna Sagar Dam-Godavari

Q.49) Which river valley was severely affected by the disaster in June, 2013?

[A] Alaknanda

[B] Mandakini

[C] Nandakini

[D] Bhagirathi

Q.50) Match the following:


(a) Tarapur atomic

(b) Rawatbhata atomic

(c) Kakapada atomic

(d) Kaiga atomic


1. Karnataka power station

2. Gujarat power station

3. Rajasthan power station

4. Maharashtra power station

[A] 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d

[B] 3-a, 4-b, 1-c, 2-d

[C] 4-a, 3-b, 2-c, 1-d

[D] 2-a, 1-b, 4-c, 3-d

Q.51) Which of the following countries recently became a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

[A] Sudan

[B] Afghanistan

[C] Bhutan

[D] Ethiopia

Q.52) Which of the following organizations has sanctioned $ 1.5 billion loan to support the Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM)?

[A] World Bank



[D] Japan Bank for International Cooperation

Q.53) In which of the following Indian States Lokayukta has been appointed by the Supreme Court of India by using its extraordinary powers under Article 142 of the Constitution?

[A] Uttar Pradesh

[B] Bihar

[C] Karnataka

[D] Andhra Pradesh

Q.54) Satellites of which of the following countries have been successfully launched by using ISRO’s PSLV C29?

[A] Canada

[B] Singapore

[C] Indonesia

[D] Saudi Arabia

Q.55) As per the 2015 Human Development Report (HDR), what was India’s rank in Human Development Index (HDI) for 2014?

[A] 121

[B] 130

[C] 132

[D] 138

Q.56) India’s largest National Cancer Institute is set up in which of the following States?

[A] Andhra Pradesh

[B] Haryana

[C] Gujarat

[D] West Bengal

Q.57) Which of the following countries has hosted the International Neutrality Conference?

[A] India

[B] Sri Lanka

[C] Turkmenistan

[D] Pakistan

Q.58) Which of the following committees has been appointed to look into dispute between ONGC and RIL on KG gas fields?

[A] Pradhan Committee

[B] A.P. Shah Committee

[C] M.B. Shah Committee

[D] Deshmukh Committee

Q.59) Which of the following is the first bank to tie up with Indian railways to sell rail tickets through its web-site?

[A] State Bank of India

[B] ICICI Bank

[C] Axis Bank Ltd.

[D] Punjab National Bank

Q.60) Which of the following banks is the World’s largest bank by assets?

[A] Bank of America

[B] Industrial and Commercial Bank of China (ICBC)

[C] BNP Paribas

[D] Bank of China

Q.61) Which of the following space agencies has launched the LISA Pathfinder?

[A] Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency


[C] European Space Agency

[D] China National Space Administration

Q.62) The new Parliament building of which of the following countries is built by India?

[A] Bhutan

[B] Afghanistan

[C] Nepal

[D] Maldives

Q.63) Which of the following committees suggested initiatives on Revisiting and Revitalizing PPP Model?

[A] Dinesh Pachori Committee

[B] Arun Pasricha Committee

[C] Vijay Kelkar Committee

[D] Deepak Mohanty Committee

Q.64) Who among the following has been appointed as the new Director-General of National Centre for Good Governance (NCGG)?

[A] Arvind Subramanian

[B] Bibek Debroy

[C] Gyanendra Bandgaiyan

[D] Sanjay Madhav

Q.65) Which of the following States is planning to construct the first ever underwater road tunnel in the country?

[A] Tamil Nadu

[B] Gujarat

[C] Andhra Pradesh

[D] Kerala

Q.66) Which of the following countries has announced to adopt Chinese Yuan as its legal currency?

[A] Greece

[B] Egypt

[C] Zimbabwe

[D] Namibia

Q.67) Salma Dam project is being under reconstruction in which of the following countries?

[A] Nepal

[B] Bhutan

[C] Afghanistan

[D] Bangladesh

Q.68) Which of the following countries has launched the DAMPE satellite?

[A] China

[B] Russia

[C] Japan


Q.69) Which of the following countries has approved world’s first dengue vaccine?

[A] United Kingdom

[B] Canada

[C] Mexico

[D] France

Q.70) Which of the following American Universities has launched the A.P.J. Abdul ‘Calm Fellowship for Indian students?

[A] Harvard University

[B] University of South Florida

[C] University of California, Berkeley

[D] University of Chicago

Q.71) Which of the following acids does not contain oxygen?

[A] Nitric acid

[B] Sulphuric acid

[C] Hydrochloric acid

[D] All of the above

Q.72) Which of the following is not biodegradable?

[A] Domestic sewage

[B] Lab detergents

[C] Soap

[D] Plant leaves

Q.73) The atomic nucleus was discovered by

[A] Rutherford

[B] Dalton

[C] Einstein

[D] Thompson

Q.74) The branch of Physics that deals with the motion of a very small particle is called

[A] Field Theory

[B] Particle Physics

[C] Quantum Mechanics

[D] Atomic Physics

Q.75) Which of the following foods provides the nutrient for the growth of new tissues in the human body?

[A] Fruits

[B] Vegetables

[C] Cheese

[D] Sweets

Q.76) Which of the following is the largest air pollutant?

[A] Carbon dioxide

[B] Carbon monoxide

[C] Sulphur dioxide

[D] Hydrocarbons

Q.77) In binary code, the number 7 is written as

[A] 110

[B] 111

[C] 101

[D] 100

Q.78) Anthophobia is fear of which of the following?

[A] Boss

[B] Fire

[C] Flowers

[D] Dogs

Q.79) Clove is obtained from

[A] root

[B] stem

[C] fruit

[D] flower bud

Q.80) Which of the following fights infection in the body?



[C] Blood plasma

[D] Haemoglobin

Q.81) Green Revolution means

[A] use of green manure

[B] grow more crops

[C] high yield variety programmes

[D] green vegetation

Q.82) Pedology is the science related to the study of

[A] atmosphere

[B] soil

[C] pollutants

[D] seeds

Q.83) The unit of electrical resistance of a conductor is

[A] farad

[B] volt

[C] ampere

[D] ohm

Q.84) The step that produces largest number of ATP molecules in our system is

[A] glycoysis

[B] Kerbs cycle

[C] terminal respiratory chain

[D] hydrolysis

Q.85) Brass is an alloy of

[A] copper and iron

[B] zinc and iron

[C] copper and zinc

[D] iron and nickel

Q.86) When beams of red, blue and green lights fall on the same spot, the colour of the light becomes

[A] violet

[B] red

[C] yellow

[D] white

Q.87) Which organ of the human body does the Alzheimer’s disease affect?

[A] Ear

[B] Brain

[C] Eye

[D] Stomach

Q.88) How many units of electricity will be consumed if you use a 60 watt electric bulb for 5 hours everyday for 30 days?

[A] 12

[B] 9

[C] 6

[D] 3

Q.89) Soda water obtained by passing carbon dioxide in water is

[A] an oxidising agent

[B] basic in nature

[C] acidic in nature

[D] a reducing agent

Q.90) Which of the following is not a kharif crop?

[A] Groundnut

[B] Maize

[C] Masoor

[D] Paddy

Q.91) The radioactive isotope used to control leukaemia is

[A] Phosphorus 32

[B] Cobalt 60

[C] Iodine 131

[D] Sodium 24

Q.92) White rust is an important fungal disease of

[A] wheat

[B] mustard

[C] rice

[D] bajra

Q.93) Liver fluke lives in the bile duct of

[A] horse

[B] cow

[C] man

[D] sheep

Q.94) Nucleus of helium contains

[A] only one proton

[B] two protons

[C] two protons and two neutrons

[D] one proton and two neutrons

Q.95) Of the following diseases, which one is caused by insect bite?

[A] Scurvy

[B] Dengue

[C] Pneumonia

[D] Asthma

Q.96) The class of food having highest caloric value per unit weight is

[A] vitamin

[B] fat

[C] carbohydrate

[D] protein

Q.97) Baking soda is

[A] sodium carbohydrate

[B] sodium bicarbonate

[C] sodium sulphate

[D] sodium hydroxide

Q.98) Density of water is the highest at the temperature of

[A] 0 °C

[B] 4 °C

[C] 50 °C

[D] 100 °C

Q.99) In which of the following organs bile is stored?

[A] Spleen

[B] Pancreas

[C] Appendix

[D] Gallbladder

Q.100) Deficiency of which of the following vitamins causes the disease of slow blood clotting?

[A] Vitamin C

[B] Vitamin D

[C] Vitamin E

[D] Vitamin K

Paper 2: Law

Q.1) ‘Rule against perpetuity’ given under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 does not affect any rule of

[A] Hindu Law

[B] Muhammadan Law

[C] Christian Law

[D] None of the above

Q.2) Standing Timbers under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 are

[A] immovable properties only so long as not severed from the earth

[B] immovable properties unless there is a contract to sever the same from the earth

[C] not immovable properties

[D] immovable properties if value exceeds Rs. 100

Q.3) Instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 means

[A] a testamentary instrument

[B] a testamentary as well as a non-testamentary instrument

[C] a non-testamentary instrument

[D] any written document

Q.4) For valid attestation of an instrument under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, it is necessary that

[A] each attesting witness must see the executant sign the instrument or affix his mark

[B] the executant must see the attesting witness signing the instrument

[C] each attesting witness must sign the instrument in the presence of the executant

[D] All of the above

Q.5) A has a wife B and a Son C. C in consideration of Rs. 5 lakhs paid to him by his mother B executes a deed by a registered instrument releasing his share of inheritance to A’s property. A dies and C claims his share in A’s property. Which of the following is correct?

[A] C is bound by his instrument and cannot claim his share in A’s property

[B] C is not bound by his instrument and can claim his share in A’s property

[C] C is bound by his instrument if instrument is attested by at least two witnesses

[D] C can claim the share in properties of A only after the death of his mother

Q.6) A agrees to sell to B a certain quantity of gunny bags deliverable on a future day. Before the due date, B assigns his beneficial interest in the contract to C. A commits a breach of contract. Which of the following is correct?

[A] C is entitled to sue A for damages for not delivering the gunny bags

[B] C is not entitled to sue for damages as it will amount to transfer of mere right to sue by B

[C] C is not entitled to sue A for damages as there is no privity of contract between A and C

[D] C is entitled to sue only to get his money back from B

Q.7) Provision based on doctrine of acceleration under the. Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is

[A] Section 29

[B] Section 28

[C] Section 27

[D] Section 30

Q.8) A owns two adjoining properties X and Y. A sells the property X to B and imposes a condition that for the more beneficial enjoyment of the property Y, B shall keep open a portion of property X and will not build upon it. Which of the following is correct?

[A] The condition is not valid since A has sold the property which is an absolute transfer and hence A cannot impose any condition on the mode of enjoyment of the property X

[B] The condition is valid

[C] The condition would have been valid only if the transfer had been without consideration

[D] The condition will be valid only if A proves that he has no other way to reach to his property Y except through the open portion of the property X

Q.9) A makes a gift of land to B. C sues A for possession of the land. While the suit is pending, B transfers the land to D. A dies and C obtains a decree for possession against B as legal representative of A. Is D’s title affected by the rule of lis pendens so as to be subject of C’s decree?

[A] Yes, because transfer is without consideration.

[B] No, because B was not a party to the suit at the time of transfer by B to D.

[C] B is not legal representative of A for C’s decree

[D] After gift made to B, C cannot sue A for possession of the land

Q.10) Handing over the possession of mortgaged property is required in

[A] mortgage by conditional sale

[B] English mortgage

[C] mortgage by deposit of title deeds

[D] None of the above

Q.11) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

[A] Marshalling by subsequent purchaser —- Section 81

[B] Right of mortgagor to redeem—-Section 60A

[C] Right of usufructuary mortgagor to recover possession—–Section 62

[D] None of the above

Q.12) Relief from Equity Court could be obtained

[A] before adjudication in the Common Law Courts

[B] after decision by the Common Law Courts

[C] both before or after decision by the Common Law Courts

[D] None of the above

Q.13) Equity Court could be approached

[A] as a matter of right

[B] as a matter of grace

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] None of the above

Q.14) An equitable interest is an interest recognised by

[A] the Court of Chancery

[B] the Common Law Courts

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] None of the above

Q.15) A transfers Rs. 10,000 in four percent to B, in trust to pay the interest annually accruing due to C for her life. A dies. Then C dies. Which of the following is correct?

[A] B holds the fund for the benefit of C’s legal representative

[B] B holds the fund for the benefit of A’s legal representative

[C] B may now enjoy the fund for himself

[D] Fund is liable to be forfeited by the State

Q.16) Where the trust property consists of money and cannot be applied immediately or at an early date to the purposes of the trust, the trustee is bound (subject to any direction contained in the instrument of trust) to invest the money on the specified securities and on no others. Which Section of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 contains this provision?

[A] Section 18

[B] Section 19

[C] Section 20

[D] Section 21

Q.17) Which of the following Sections of the Indian Trust Act deals with liability for breach of trust?

[A] Section 20

[B] Section 21

[C] Section 22

[D] Section 23

Q.18) The words and expressions used in the Specific Relief Act, but not defined in the Act, have meaning as defined in the

[A] General Clauses Act

[B] Indian Contract Act

[C] Transfer of Property Act

[D] Civil Procedure Code

Q.19) Which of the following Sections of the Specific Relief Act deals with recovery of specific movable property?

[A] Section 5

[B] Section 7

[C] Section 8

[D] Section 9

Q.20) Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

[A] Contracts not specifically enforceable-Section 15

[B] Power to award compensation in certain cases-Section 21

[C] Liquidation of damages not a bar to specific performance-Section 23

[D] Temporary and perpetual injunctions-Section 37

Q.21) Every promise and every set of promises, forming the consideration for each other is

[A] an offer

[B] an agreement

[C] an acceptance

[D] a contract

Q.22) Communication of acceptance is complete as against the acceptor

[A] when it is put in the course of transmission

[B] when the proposer conveys the acceptance to the acceptor

[C] when it is communicated to the acceptor that the acceptance has reached the proposer

[D] when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer

Q.23) A ‘tender’ is

[A] an offer

[B] an invitation to offer

[C] an invitation for discussion

[D] a promise

Q.24) An agreement in restraint of marriage is

[A] valid

[B] illegal

[C] void

[D] voidable

Q.25) In order to convert a proposal into a promise

[A] the acceptance of proposal must be absolute and unqualified

[B] the acceptance of proposal may be varied

[C] the acceptance of proposal may be conditional

[D] the acceptance of proposal may be absolute, varied or conditional

Q.26) A proposal can be revoked by the proposer

[A] by the communication of notice by the proposer to the other party

[B] by the lapse of time prescribed in such proposal for its acceptance

[C] by the failure of the acceptor to fulfil a condition precedent to acceptance

[D] All of the above

Q.27) Which one of the following is correct?

[A] All agreements are contracts once they have been made between the parties for a consideration

[B] All agreements are contracts once they have been made between the parties with their free consent

[C] All agreements are contracts once they have been made between the competent parties

[D] All agreements are contracts if they are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract for lawful consideration and lawful object and not expressly declared by law to be void

Q.28) A valid contract at the initial stage ceases to be enforceable subsequently due to intervention of unforeseen factors. The contract will

[A] remain valid

[B] be voidable at the option of either party to the contract, when it ceases to be enforceable

[C] become void since the time of its inception

[D] become void since the time it ceases to be enforceable

Q.29) In Indian Law, a wagering contract is

[A] treated as voidable

[B] treated as void

[C] treated against public policy

[D] treated as valid

Q.30) A person who finds goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody is subject to responsibility in the same way as a/an

[A] owner thereof

[B] pledgee thereof

[C] bailee thereof

[D] custodian thereof

Q.31) An agency under the Contract Act is terminated by

[A] principal revoking his authority

[B] the death of either principal or agent

[C] principal being adjudicated an insolvent

[D] All of the above

Q.32) The liability of the surety under the contract of guarantee is

[A] several with that of the principal debtor

[B] alternate with that of the principal debtor

[C] coextensive with that of the principal debtor

[D] All of the above

Q.33) A agrees to sell a horse of worth Rs. 5,000 for Rs. 1,000 to B. A’s consent to the agreement was freely given. The agreement is

[A] a contract

[B] not a contract for inadequacy of consideration

[C] not enforceable

[D] against the provision of the Contract Act

Q.34) Which one is the famous case related with the general offer?

[A] Lalman Shukla v. Gauri Dutt

[B] Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose

[C] Carlill v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

[D] MacPherson v. Appanna

Q.35) Consent will be said to be free, when it is not caused by coercion, undue influence, fraud, misrepresentation and mistake. The term `free consent’ has been defined In which Section of the Contract Act?

[A] Section 14

[B] Section 15

[C] Section 16

[D] Section 17

Q.36) Which statement is correct for an act of tort?

[A] It is a civil wrong

[B] All civil wrongs are not tort

[C] It gives a right in rem

[D] All of the above

Q.37) A tort is a breach of duty, which is

[A] imposed by the parties

[B] imposed by the law

[C] imposed by the penal law

[D] imposed by the society

Q.38) Who said that liability in law of tort arises only when the wrong is covered by any one or the other nominated tort?

[A] Fraser

[B] Winfield

[C] Blackstone

[D] Salmond

Q.39) Qui tacit per alium Tacit per se, a maxim in law of tort, is related with which act of tort?

[A] Capacity to sue

[B] Negligence

[C] Vicarious liability

[D] Defamation

Q.40) In a suit for damages on the ground of malicious prosecution, what is required to be proved by the plaintiff?

[A] That he has been prosecuted by the defendant

[B] That the prosecution was instituted without reasonable and probable cause

[C] Proceedings for malicious prosecution terminated in favour of the plaintiff

[D] All of the above

Q.41) The maxim ubi jus lbi remedium means

[A] where there is remedy there is right

[B] where there is right there is remedy

[C] where there is fault there is remedy

[D] where there is no fault there is no remedy

Q.42) Which one of the following famous cases is related to an exception to the application of the doctrine of volenti non fit injuria based on `rescue’ cases?

[A] Haynes v. Harwood

[B] Padmavati v. Dugganaika

[C] Ashby v. White

[D] Wooldridge v. Sumner

Q.43) In which case, the principle of absolute liability was laid down?

[A] Bhim Singh v. State of J&K

[B] Rylands v. Fletcher

[C] M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

[D] Lloyd v. Grace, Smith & Co.

Q.44) Res ipsa loquituris a rule of

[A] criminal law

[B] statutory law

[C] substantive law

[D] evidence law

Q.45) The standard of care required on the part of defendant in the tort of `negligence’ is of

[A] highly skilled person

[B] any person of least understanding

[C] a reasonable and prudent man

[D] a person having legal understanding

Q.46) The rule regarding the principle of negligence was laid down in the leading case of

[A] Glasgow Corp v. Muir

[B] Donoghue v. Stevenson

[C] Winterbottom v. Wright

[D] Ishwari Devi v. Union of India

Q.47) Where a person willfully and without any justification is dealing with the goods in such a manner that another person, who is entitled to its immediate use and possession of the same, is deprived of that, is known as

[A] tort of conversion

[B] tort of detinue

[C] tort of trespass to goods

[D] tort of nuisance

Q.48) For application of the rule of strict liability, which of the following essentials is required?

[A] Keeping or storing the dangerous thing by a person on his land

[B] Non-natural use of the land by the person

[C] Escape of the dangerous thing out of the land of the person storing or keeping it and causing damage or injury

[D] All of the above

Q.49) Which statement is correct?

[A] A public nuisance is a civil wrong as well as a crime

[B] A private nuisance is a civil wrong as well as a crime

[C] A public nuisance is a crime and not a civil wrong

[D] A private nuisance is a crime and not a civil wrong

Q.50) The leading case in which the test of directness for determining the remoteness of damages was finally established in

[A] Smith v. London South-Western Railway Co.

[B] Wagon Mound Case

[C] Re Polemis and Purness Withy & Co.

[D] Overseas Tankship (UK) Ltd. v. Morts Dock & Engineering Co. Ltd.

Q.51) In a contract for the sale of specific goods, if at the time of the contract the goods have, without the knowledge of the seller, perished, then

[A] the contract is legal for the buyer

[B] the contract is voidable at the option of the buyer

[C] the contract is void for both the parties

[D] the contract has become illegal

Q.52) In an agreement to sell the goods on the terms that the price is to be fixed by the valuation of a third party but such third party fails to make the valuation, then

[A] the valuation may be made by the seller

[B] the valuation may be made by the buyer

[C] the valuation may be made jointly by the buyer and the seller

[D] the buyer and the seller cannot make the valuation and the contract becomes void

Q.53) Sohan, a fraudulent person posing himself a respectable person, purchased a valuable ring from Mohan, a shopkeeper by giving him a cheque. The cheque was dishonoured but before the fraud could be detected, Sohan pledged the ring with Rohan who acted in good faith and without notice of Sohan’s defect of title. What is the correct position?

[A] Mohan can sue Sohan, the buyer, to recover the ring

[B] Rohan’s title to the ring is good against Mohan and Sohan, hence he will retain the ring

[C] Sohan’s title to the ring was defective, hence Mohan can sue Rohan and succeed to take the ring back

[D] The contract is based on fraud, hence can be declared void and no liability of parties will arise in the void contract

Q.54) A, a toy dealer, displayed in his shopwindow some plastic toy catapults. B, a child of six years of age, was attracted to the toys and one plastic toy catapult was bought from the shop after discussion with the shopkeeper. While the child was using it, the toy catapult broke off and entered the left eye of the child which had to be removed. The case is filed against the seller for damages. There is contention that

[A] it was a sale by description, hence the seller is lira le fqr . damages as the toy vvids riot bf ffieichantable quality

[B] it was a normal sale and the principle ‘let the buyer beware’ applies and the seller is not liable for damages

[C] it was a sale by sample and the plastic toy catapult was as per sample, hence the seller is not liable for damages

[D] after sale, the property in goods was transferred to the buyer, hence the seller cannot be held responsible for the negligence of the buyer

Q.55) A sold the goods on credit to B and delivered the goods to the buyer’s shipping agent who had put them on board a ship. However, the goods were returned to the seller for repacking. When the goods were still with the seller, the buyer became insolvent. The seller being unpaid refuses to return the goods. Examine the following options and decide the correct one.

[A] As the buyer has become insolvent, he is unable to pay the cost, hence he cannot sue the seller for goods

[B] As the seller is still tmpaid and he is in possession of the goods, he has lien on goods and hence he has right to retain the goods

[C] Though the buyer has become insolvent but the seller too has lost his right of lien on goods and the goods belong to the buyer

[D] The seller will resell the goods and out of the sale proceeds will retain original price and refund the extra to the original buyer

Q.56) In negotiable instruments, the great element of negotiability is the acquisition of property by party’s own conduct and not by another’s, i.e., if you take it bona fide and for value, nobody can deprive you of it. Which one of the following is the authority of this proposition?

[A] Whistler v. Forster

[B] Raphael v. Bank of England

[C] Carlos v. Fancourt

[D] Roberts v. Peake

Q.57) The law requires that every party to a negotiable instrument must be capable of contracting according to the law of the contract. What happens when a minor becomes party to the instrument as drawer or maker or indorser?

[A] The whole instrument is void and all parties are discharged of their liability

[B] The instrument is voidable and every party has right to declare it void

[C] The instrument is valid and all parties including minor are liable under the instrument

[D] The minor is not liable on the instrument but it remains binding upon all other parties

Q.58) Where an instrument requires indorsement and it has been indorsed, then what is the rule creating liability on it among the following options?

[A] Every indorser incurs liability to all the parties that are subsequent to him

[B] Only the first indorser and not the subsequent indorsers will be liable to all the parties

[C] If an indorser denies the genuineness of the instrument, he may be exempted from his liability

[D] If an indorser shows that the instrument had already been altered before he received it, he will be exempted from his liability

Q.59) Which of the following options is not correct? A bill of exchange may have to be presented for acceptance before it is prescribed for payment. Presentment for acceptance is necessary only where

[A] the bill is payable at a given time after sight

[B] the bill expressly stipulates that it shall be presented for acceptance before presentment for payment

[C] the bill is made payable at a place other than the place of business or residence

[D] the drawer and the drawee have common interest in presenting the bill for acceptance

Q.60) When the holder of the cheque receives information from the bank that the cheque has been dishonoured, he should make a demand by giving a notice in writing to the drawer of the cheque for payment of the money

[A] within fifteen days

[B] within thirty days

[C] within twenty-one days

[D] within forty-five days

Q.61) A small company may be one whose turnover as per its last Profit and Loss Account did not exceed ……………………… of such higher amount as may be prescribed which cannot be more than …………………..

[A] Rs. 2 crores, Rs. 10 crores

[B] Rs. 2 crores, Rs. 50 crores

[C] Rs. 2 crores, Rs. 20 crores

[D] Rs. 5 crore, Rs. 50 crores

Q.62) Inactive company means a company which has not been carrying on any business or has not filed financial statements and annual returns during

[A] the last three financial years

[B] the last two financial years

[C] the last four financial years

[D] the last five financial years

Q.63) The Companies Act, 2013 has provided that in listed companies, appointment of independent directors is mandatory and the independent directors will be appointed

[A] from the list provided by the Company Law Board

[B] from the list of persons given by the Ministry of Law and Company Affairs

[C] from the Data Bank maintained for this purpose

[D] from the list of persons nominated by the shareholders of the company

Q.64) The Companies Act, 2013 has done a tremendous job by providing Company’s Social Responsibility (CSR) as a mandatory activity. A company has to comply with mandatory CSR norms where

[A] the net worth of the company is INR (Indian National Rupee) 1,000 crores or more

[B] the turnover of the company is INR 1,000 crores or more

[C] its net profit during any financial year is INR 50 crores or more

[D] its paid-up share capital is INR 200 crores or more

Q.65) The National Company Law Appellate Tribunal consists of judicial and technical members. The Chairperson is one who is or has been a judge of the Supreme Court or the Chief Justice of a High Court. The maximum number of members in the NCLAT has been provided as

[A] eleven members

[B] nine members

[C] thirteen members

[D] seven members

Q.66) A, B and C enter into an agreement for partnership at will. .The partnership deed contains the following provisions. Which one of the following provisions of the deed is inconsistent with partnership at will?

[A] That there will be option for a surviving partner to purchase a deceased partner’s share at a fixed valuation

[B] That disputes between the partners, if any, shall be referred to arbitration

[C] That every partner will have a power to nominate his successor

[D] That if any partner wants to retire from partnership, notice of a certain fixed time will be required before retirement

Q.67) By implied authority, each partner binds all other partners by his acts in all matters which are within the scope and objects of partnership. In a partnership of general commercial nature, which of the following is not within the implied authority of partners?

[A] That every partner may pledge or sell the partnership property

[B] That any partner may admit any liability in a suit against the firm

[C] That every partner may borrow money on account of the partnership

[D] That every partner may engage servants for the partnership business

Q.68) If a person who is minor according to the law to which he is subject is admitted to the benefits of a partnership, it is claimed that

[A] his share in the firm’s property is not liable to the firm’s debts

[B] he can sue the partners to show the accounts

[C] he can enjoy, for some time, the status of minority even after attaining majority

[D] he can sue the partners for payment of his share of profits of the firm

Q.69) Where a partner becomes insolvent, he ceases to be partner in the firm

[A] on the date on which he declares himself as insolvent

[B] on the date which is agreed by him with other partners for declaring him insolvent

[C] on the date on which insolvency of the partner is advertised publicly by the remaining partners

[D] on the date on which order of adjudication is made

Q.70) A, B and C enter Into an agreement for partnership in which C remains a sleeping partner. It is found that C is in adulterous relationship with B’s wife. What is the correct line of action?

[A] B insists that the firm be dissolved on this ground and advances his action for it

[B] A advises to terminate C from the firm and insists B to continue the firm’s business

[C] C regrets for his act and insists to compensate the firm’s loss, if any, instead of dissolution of the firm

[D] A opposes dissolution of the firm as it was not a fit ground of dissolution and advises to continue the business afresh

Q.71) Communication made ‘without prejudice’ is protected

[A] under Section 22 of the Evidence Act

[B] under Section 23 of the Evidence Act

[C] under Section 24 of the Evidence Act

[D] under Section 21 of the Evidence Act

Q.72) ‘Necessity rule’ as to the admissibility of evidence is contained in

[A] Section 31 of the Evidence Act

[B] Section 32 of the Evidence Act

[C] Section 60 of the Evidence Act

[D] Section 61 of the Evidence Act

Q.73) Delhi High Court issued guidelines for the protection of witnesses in

[A] Neelam Katara Case (2003)

[B] Naina Sahni Case (2007)

[C] Uphaar Cinema Case (2005)

[D] Parliament Attack Case (2006)

Q.74) A prosecutes B for adultery with C, A’s wife. B denies that C is A’s wife, but the court convicts B of adultery. Afterwards, C is prosecuted for bigamy in marrying B during A’s lifetime. C says that she never was A’s wife. The judgment against B is

[A] relevant as against C

[B] irrelevant as against C

[C] relevant and admissible against C

[D] None of the above

Q.75) Which of the following chapters of the Indian Evidence Act deals with ‘witnesses’?

[A] Chapter VI

[B] Chapter VII

[C] Chapter VIII

[D] Chapter IX

Q.76) Which of the following provisions of the Indian Evidence Act was omitted by the Amendment Act of 2002?

[A] Section 155(2)

[B] Section 155(3)

[C] Section 155(4)

[D] Section 155(5)

Q.77) Which of the following Sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 defines the term `judicial proceeding’?

[A] Section 2(i)

[B] Section 2(j)

[C] Section 2(k)

[D] Section 2(1)

Q.78) In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court has issued specific guidelines regarding arrest?

[A] Vishakha v. State of kajasthan

[B] A.R. Antulay’s Case

[C] D.K. Basu’s Case

[D] Nandini Satpathy’s Case

Q.79) What is the maximum amount of maintenance which can be ordered by a Magistrate as monthly allowance under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

[A] Rs. 1000

[B] Rs. 500

[C] Rs. 2000

[D] No limit

Q.80) Under Section 164A of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the victim of rape shall be sent to registered medical practitioner for examination within from the time of receiving the information relating to the commission of such offence

[A] 6 hours

[B] 12 hours

[C] 24 hours

[D] 36 hours

Q.81) Which of the following Sub-sections was/were inserted by the Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005 in Section 176 of Cr.P.C.?

[A] 176(1A)

[B] 176(1A) and 176(1B)

[C] 176(5) and 176(6)

[D] 176(1A) and 176(5)

Q.82) The period of limitation prescribed in the Code of Criminal Procedure is not applicable to the offences under

[A] the Income-tax Act, 1961 (43 of 1961)

[B] the Customs Act, 1962 (52 of 1962)

[C] the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (42 of 1999)

[D] All of the above

Q.83) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Acts, 1999 and 2002 were enacted on the recommendations of

[A] Santhanam Committee

[B] Malimath Committee

[C] Thakkar Committee

[D] None of the above

Q.84) Which of the following landmark judgments of the Supreme Court deals with the applicability of res judicatet in writ petitions?

[A] Satyadhan Ghosal v. Deorajin Debi

[B] Daryao v. State of UP

[C] LIC v. India Automobiles & Co.

[D] None of the above

Q.85) A court can return the plaint, when the court has got

[A] no territorial jurisdiction

[B] no pecuniary jurisdiction

[C] no subject-matter jurisdiction

[D] Any of the above

Q.86) The Code of Civil Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2002 came into force on

[A] 1st April, 2002

[B] 1st June, 2002

[C] 6th June, 2002

[D] 1st July, 2002

Q.87) The provision for setting aside the arbitral award is laid down under

[A] Section 32 of the related Act

[B] Section 36 of the related Act

[C] Section 34 of the related Act

[D] None of the above

Q.88) The parties to the arbitration agreement shall appoint arbitrator within

[A] thirty days

[B] sixty days

[C] forty days

[D] ninety days

Q.89) The decrees or orders made by Small Causes Court are revisable by

[A] the District Court

[B] the High Court

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] None of the above

Q.90) Who is authorised to abolish Courts of SmalI Causes?

[A] The concerned High Court

[B] The concerned State Government

[C] The concerned District Court

[D] The concerned District Court after consultation with the concerned High Court and the State Government

Q.91) In which of the following cases, it was contended that the Preamble to our Constitution should be the guiding star in its interpretation and hence any law made under the Article 21 should be held as void if it offended against the principles of natural justice?

[A] Gopalan v. State of Madras

[B] Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

[C] Bhim Singh v. Union of India

[D] Excel Wear v. Union of India

Q.92) Which of the following cases upheld ‘secularism’ as a basic feature of the Indian Constitution even before the word ‘secular’ was inserted in the Preamble?

[A] Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

[B] Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

[C] Waman Rao v. Union of India

[D] Samatha v. State of AP

Q.93) In which of the following cases, the consensus of the majority of the judgment was that the basic structure of the Constitution could not be destroyed or damaged by amending the Constitution in exercise of the power under the Article 368 of the Indian Constitution?

[A] Waman Rao v. Union of India

[B] Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

[C] Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India

[D] None of the above

Q.94) A person who or whose father was not born in the territory of India but “who (a) has his domicile ‘in the territory of India’, and (b) has been ordinarily residing ‘within the territory of India’ for not less than 5 years immediately preceding the commencement of the Constitution” is considered as Indian citizen. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution describes it?

[A] Article 5

[B] Article 5B

[C] Article 5A

[D] Article 5C

Q.95) Clause (4) of Article 13 of the Indian Constitution which was inserted by the 24th Amendment Act, 1971, states that a Constitution Amendment Act, passed according to Article 368 of the Indian Constitution is a law within the meaning of Article 13 and would, accordingly be void if it contravenes a fundamental right. This amendment was declared void in which of the following cases?

[A] Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

[B] Edward Mills Co. Ltd. v. State of Ajmer

[C] Minerva Mills v. Union of India

[D] Ghulam Sarwar v. Union of India

Q.96) Which of the following is an essential part of rule of law and independence of judiciary?

[A] Judicial review

[B] Impartial appointment of judges

[C] Impeachment

[D] Original jurisdiction

Q.97) The test of reasonableness is not a wholly test and its contours are fairly indicated by the Constitution

[A] subjective

[B] objective

[C] descriptive

[D] summative

Q.98) Taxation is a/an ………………………….. power of the State and there is no fundamental right to be immune from taxation.

[A] independent

[B] statutory

[C] authoritative

[D] administrative

Q.99) ‘Protection in respect of conviction for offences’ is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution?

[A] Article 22

[B] Article 21

[C] Article 20

[D] Article 19

Q.100) According to Clause (1) of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of

[A] public order

[B] morality

[C] health

[D] All of the above

Q.101) Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution mentions the provision of the post of the Prime Minister in India?

[A] Article 73

[B] Article 74

[C] Article 75

[D] Article 74(1)

Q.102) A person shall be disqualified for being a member of either House of the Parliament if he is so disqualified under the Schedule.

[A] Sixth

[B] Eighth

[C] Seventh

[D] Tenth

Q.103) Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from their office by

[A] impeachment

[B] the President

[C] the Council of Ministers

[D] the House of the People

Q.104) Which of the following has been held to be questions of fact and not of law?

[A] Whether a fact has been proved when evidence for and against has been properly received

[B] Whether a statutory presumption has been rebutted

[C] Whether an endowment is private or public, there being no questions of misconstruction of a document involved

[D] All of the above

Q.105) The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the

[A] Prime Minister

[B] Governor

[C] President

[D] Vidhan Sabha

Q.106) Absolutism means

[A] the state or quality of being absolute

[B] a sort of government in which public power is vested in some person or persons, unchecked and uncontrolled by any law or institution

[C] unconditional power or sovereignty vested in a monarch, an autocrat or an oligarchy

[D] All of the above

Q.107) Mandamus

[A] is issued to check the performance of duties of a public nature

[B] is issued to impede the performance of duties of a private nature

[C] is issued to compel the performance of duties of a public nature

[D] None of the above

Q.108) Which among the following has the power to extend functions of the State Public Service Commission?

[A] The Governor

[B] The State Legislator

[C] The Chief Minister

[D] The Advocate General

Q.109) While a proclamation of emergency is in operation:

(I) the executive power of the Union shall extend to the giving of directions to any State as to the manner in which the executive power thereof is to be exercised

(II) the power of the Parliament to make laws with respect to any matter shall include the power to make laws on the subject which is not enumerated in the Union List.

Which of the above statements is/are found to be correct?

[A] Only (I)

[B] Only (II)

[C] Both (I) and (II)

[D] Neither (I) nor (II)

Q.110) The Governor must remain conscious of his constitutional obligations and not sacrifice either political responsibility or parliamentary conventions on the altar of political expediency. In which of the following cases, the constitutional obligations of the Governor were mentioned?

[A] S.R. Chaudhari v. State of Punjab

[B] B.R. Kapur v. State of Tamil Nadu

[C] Krishna Ballabh Sahay v. Commission of Inquiry

[D] None of the above

Q.111)”Administrative Law is the law relating to the administration. It determines the organisation, powers and duties of the administrative authorities.” Who among the following jurists has given the above definition?

[A] Ivor Jennings

[B] K.C. Davis

[C] Owen Hood Phillips

[D] Keith

Q.112) State the similarity between constitutional and administrative laws

[A] Both constitutional and administrative laws are private laws

[B] Both constitutional and administrative laws regulate the highest norms of the State

[C] Both constitutional and administrative laws deal with the organisation and functions of the government at rest

[D] Both constitutional and administrative laws are public laws

Q.113) The privilege to withhold the documents/ information under the administrative law is enacted in which of the following Sections of the Evidence Act?

[A] Section 120

[B] Section 126

[C] Section 123

[D] Section 98

Q.114) According to Dicey, the meaning of the rule of law may be discussed under which of the following heads?

[A] Equality after law

[B] Equality of fixed rules of law

[C] Equality under law

[D] Equality before law

Q.115) K.C. Davis in his book, Administrative Law gave several meanings of the term `rule of law’. Choose the correct option accordingly.

[A] Fixed rules of law

[B] Exclusion of discretion

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.116) The doctrine of ‘separation of powers’ can be explained by which of the following?

[A] Same person should not form the part of more than one of the three organs of the government

[B] Same person should not form the part of more than two of the three organs of the government

[C] Same person should not form the part of any organ of the three organs of the government

[D] None of the above

Q.117) In modern States, the executive function is further classified as quasi-legislative, quasi-judicial, ministerial and purely administrative functions. This observation is based on which of the following cases?

[A] Harishankar Bagla v. State of MP

[B] Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

[C] Hamdard Dawakhana v. Union of India

[D] All of the above

Q.118) Delegated legislation in India can be decided for post-Constitution period. This was held by

[A] Queen v. Burah

[B] Re Delhi Laws Act, 1912 [AIR 1951 SC 3321

[C] J.N. Gupta v. Province of Bihar

[D] Both (A) and (C)

Q.119) Choose the function which cannot be delegated under the administrative law.

[A] Power to give retrospective effect

[B] Appointed day or commencement of the Act

[C] Application of existing laws

[D] Suspension of operation of all/any of the provisions of the Act

Q.120) What is the disadvantage in delegated legislations?

[A] In case of gross violation of rights of the people, delegated legislation can be withdrawn/amended suitably without much delay

[B] There are chances to misuse the powers which are given by parent act and thereby the executive may enjoy more power than the Parliament

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.121) Conditional legislation under the administrative law is

[A] also known as subordinate- legislation. While making legislation the subordinate authorities can use their discretion

[B] also known as contingent legislation. No discretion can be enjoyed as there is no rule-making power

[C] Neither (A) nor (B)

[D] Both (A) and (B)

Q.122) “The principle of natural justice is one procedural rule for the administrative action.” Considering the above statement, which of the following is/are justified?

[A] No man should be judged in his own cause

[B] All men should be judged in their own cause

[C] All of the above

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.123) The courts in almost all the democratic countries enjoyed the power to decide the validity of the delegated legislation under the administrative law and apply the test. The above is related to which of the following?

[A] Test of substantive ultra vires and test of procedural ultra vires

[B] Where the parent act itself is unconstitutional and delegated legislation is unconstitutional

[C] Neither (A) nor (B)

[D] Both (A) and (B)

Q.124) The rule against bias can be discussed under the following heads:

(I) Pecuniary bias

(II) Personal bias

(III) Bias as to subject-matter.

The personal bias is decided by the Supreme Court under which of the following cases?

[A] Dimes v. Grand Junction Canal

[B] Gullapalli Nageswara Rao v. APSRTC

[C] A.K. Kraipak v. Union of India

[D] Manak Lal v. Dr. Prem Chand

Q.125) Habeas corpus literally means ‘have the corpus’ or ‘bring the body’. Under which case, habeas corpus was not be issued?

[A] A.K. Gopalan v. State of Madras

[B] Batul Chandra v. State of West Bengal

[C] Both (A) and (B)

[D] Neither (A) nor (B)

Q.126) The essential of audi alteram partem is

[A] issuance of notice without hearing.

[B] taking adverse action against him

[C] depriving the rights

[D] notice

Q.127) What is the essential condition of mandamus?

[A] The petitioner must have legal right which can be judicially enforceable

[B] The public authority concerned must do his duty

[C] The petitioner should not make a demand for the performance of the duty

[D] None of the above ,

Q.128) According to the constitutional provisions regarding contractual liability of the State, which of the following conditions must be fulfilled in order to make a contract valid, in which the government is a party?

[A] The contract made has to be executed on behalf of the President or the government as the case may be

[B] Any executive entering the contract on his own

[C] Any contract expressed to be made without any authority

[D] All of the above

Q.129) “Tribunals deal with the service matter only.” Choose the correct option among the following which is true for the above statement.

[A] It is presided over by the Judge or Magistrate

[B] CPC and rules of evidence must be followed

[C] It is decide based on the ,rule of law, procedure and rules of evidence

[D] None of the above

Q.130) What is the qualification of Ombudsman?

[A] Lokpal shall not hold any office of profit

[B] Lokpal shall be a Member of Parliament

[C] Lokpal shall carry on any business/ profession

[D] None of the above

Q.131) Hindu Law is

[A] Civil Law

[B] Personal Law

[C] Constitutional Law

[D] Criminal Law

Q.132) The ancient source(s) of the Hindu Law is/ are

[A] Sruti

[B] Smriti

[C] Digest, commentaries and custom

[D] All of the above

Q.133) Section 5(i) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 provides for

[A] monogamy

[B] bigamy

[C] polygamy

[D] polyandry

Q.134) Under which Section of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, ‘judicial separation’ has been provided?

[A] Section 9

[B] Section 10

[C] Section 11

[D] Section 13

Q.135) Section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 deals with the legitimacy of the children of

[A] void marriages

[B] voidable marriages

[C] void and voidable marriages

[D] valid marriages

Q.136) A Hindu marriage may be solemnized according to the customary rites and ceremonies of

[A] bride

[B] bridegroom

[C] both the parties

[D] either party (bride and bridegroom) thereto

Q.137) ‘Son’, in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, does not include

[A] adopted son

[B] stepson

[C] illegitimate son

[D] None of the above

Q.138) Which of the following is correct under Section 10 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 for the surviving sons, surviving daughters and mother of the male intestate?

[A] Each shall take one share

[B] All will take one share

[C] All the sons and daughters shall take one share and mother shall take one share

[D] All the sons and daughters shall take one share and mother shall take no share

Q.139) Under Section 14 of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956, any property possessed by a female Hindu, whether acquired by her before or after the commencement of this Act, shall be held by her as a[A] full owner

[B] limited owner

[C] coowner with her husband

[D] None of the above

Q.140) According to the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956, ‘minor’ means a person who has not completed his or her age of

[A] 14 years

[B] 16 years

[C] 113 years

[D] 21 years

Q.141) A female Hindu who is major and is of sound mind is legally capable to take in adoption, a son or a daughter, if

[A] she is widow or divorced woman

[B] she is unmarried woman

[C] her husband has completely and finally renounced the world or has ceased to be a Hindu or has been declared by a court of competent jurisdiction to be of unsound mind

[D] All of the above

Q.142) A junior male member of a Hindu undivided family may be its Warta’

[A] when he is able and intelligent

[B] without the consent of the coparceners of the family if he is able and clever

[C] only with the consent of the other coparceners of the family

[D] only with the order of the mother

Q.143) What are the main sources of the Muslim Law?

[A] Koran

[B] Sunnat and Ahadis

[C] Ijma and Qiyas

[D] All of the above

Q.144) By which man a Muslim lady may legally marry?

[A] Hindu

[B] Muslim

[C] Kitabiya

[D] None of the above

Q.145) With whom a “Shia’ Muslim man is entitled to perform a temporary marriage, i.e., ‘Mute’?

[A] Muslim woman

[B] Christian woman

[C] Jewish or a fire-worshipping woman

[D] Any of the women stated above

Q.146) Whether a Muslim may give `Talaq’ in the state of intoxication or under pressure?

[A] Yes, recognized under the ‘Sunni’ Muslim Law

[B] Yes, recognized under the ‘Shia’ Muslim Law

[C] Yes, according to the ‘Ismailiya’ Law

[D] Yes, according to the “Usuli’ Law

Q.147) By the third pronouncement (utterance) of `Talaq’, which kind of `Talaq’ becomes effective?

[A] Talaq-e-Hassan

[B] Talaq-e-Ahsan’

[C] Talaq-e-Tafweez

[D] None of the above

Q.148) Acknowledgement of paternity once made under Muslim Law

[A] cannot be revoked ,

[B] can be revoked

[C] can be revoked by previous permission of capable judiciary

[D] None of the above

Q.149) In whose custody, the Muslim illegitimate children will be kept?

[A] Father

[B] Mother

[C] Both father and mother

[D] Maternal grandmother

Q.150) Which of the following gifts is not valid?

[A] Gift in future

[B] Conditional gift

[C] Gift based on wagering contract or contingent contract

[D] All of the above

BJS 2016


Paper 1: General Studies

Q.1)D Q.2)B Q.3)A Q.4)C Q.5)C Q.6)D Q.7)A Q.8)C Q.9)B Q.10)D Q.11)B Q.12)D Q.13)C Q.14)A Q.15)A Q.16)C Q.17)A Q.18)A Q.19)D Q.20)D Q.21)B

Q.22)C Q.23)A Q.24)B Q.25)B Q.26)C Q.27)B Q.28)C Q.29)A Q.30)A Q.31)B Q.32)B Q.33)D Q.34)C Q.35)D Q.36)D Q.37)D Q.38)A Q.39)A Q.40)B Q.41)C

Q.42)B Q.43)B Q.44)C Q.45)C Q.46)D Q.47)A Q.48)D Q.49)B Q.50)C Q.51)D Q.52)A Q.53)A Q.54)B Q.55)B Q.56)B Q.57)C Q.58)B Q.59)B Q.60)B Q.61)C

Q.62)B Q.63)C Q.64)C Q.65)C Q.66)C Q.67)C Q.68)A Q.69)C Q.70)B Q.71)C Q.72)B Q.73)A Q.74)C Q.75)C Q.76)B Q.77)B Q.78)C Q.79)D Q.80)B Q.81)C

Q.82)B Q.83)C Q.84)B Q.85)C Q.86)D Q.87)B Q.88)B Q.89)C Q.90)C Q.91)B Q.92)B Q.93)D Q.94)B Q.95)B Q.96)B Q.97)B Q.98)B Q.99)D Q.100)D

Paper 2: Law

Q.1)B Q.2)C Q.3)C Q.4)C Q.5)B Q.6)A Q.7)C Q.8)B Q.9)B Q.10)B Q.11)C Q.12)C Q.13)B Q.14)A Q.15)B Q.16)C Q.17)D Q.18)B Q.19)B Q.20)A Q.21)B

Q.22)D Q.23)B Q.24)C Q.25)A Q.26)D Q.27)D Q.28)D Q.29)B Q.30)C Q.31)D Q.32)C Q.33)A Q.34)C Q.35)A Q.36)D Q.37)B Q.38)D Q.39)C Q.40)D Q.41)B

Q.42)A Q.43)C Q.44)D Q.45)C Q.46)B Q.47)A Q.48)D Q.49)C Q.50)C Q.51)C Q.52)D Q.53)B Q.54)A Q.55)C Q.56)B Q.57)D Q.58)A Q.59)D Q.60)B Q.61)C

Q.62)B Q.63)C Q.64)B Q.65)A Q.66)D Q.67)B Q.68)C Q.69)D Q.70)A Q.71)B Q.72)B Q.73)A Q.74)B Q.75)D Q.76)C Q.77)A Q.78)C Q.79)D Q.80)C Q.81)D

Q.82)D Q.83)B Q.84)B Q.85)D Q.86)D Q.87)C Q.88)A Q.89)C Q.90)B Q.91)A Q.92)B Q.93)A Q.94)D Q.95)C Q.96)A Q.97)A Q.98)A Q.99)C Q.100)D Q.101)C

Q.102)D Q.103)A Q.104)D Q.105)B Q.106)D Q.107)C Q.108)B Q.109)C Q.110)A Q.111)A Q.112)D Q.113)C Q.114)D Q.115)C Q.116)A Q.117)B Q.118)B

Q.119)A Q.120)B Q.121)B Q.122)A Q.123)A Q.124)C Q.125)B Q.126)D Q.127)A Q.128)A Q.129)D Q.130)A Q.131)B Q.132)D Q.133)A Q.134)B Q.135)C

Q.136)D Q.137)B Q.138)A Q.139)A Q.140)C Q.141)D Q.142)C Q.143)A Q.144)B Q.145)D Q.146)A Q.147)A Q.148)A Q.149)B Q.150)D

Important Links

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