Download Punjab Judiciary Prelims Examination 2019 Solved Paper Pdf

Download Punjab Judiciary Prelims Examination 2019 Solved Paper Pdf

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Punjab Judiciary Prelims Paper 2019

1. Under Order 6 Rule 16 CPC, the court may strike out any pleading on the ground that it is

A. Scandalous

B. Unnecessary

C. Vexatious

D. All of the above

2. Mark the incorrect statement

A. Res judicata estops the parties to a dispute from litigating again in the same court on same issues on which that court has given the decision.

B. Res judicata corresponds to that part of the doctrine of estoppels which is know in English Law as estoppels by record

C. Res judicata is similar to estoppels

D. Res judicata ousts the jurisdiction of the court to try the case, while estoppels shut the mouth of a party, being a rule of evidence.

3. Where the summons to the defendants(s) is returned unserved and the plaintiff fails to apply for issuance of fresh summons to the defendant within 7 days of the return, the suit of the plaintiff is liable to be

A. Rejected under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC

B. Dismissed under Order IX. Rule 2 of the CPC

C. Dismissed under Order IX, Rule 5 of the CPC

D. Either (A) or (B) or (C)

4. Attachment before judgment, in a suit dismissed in default

A. Revives automatically on the restoration of the suit.

B. Does not revive automatically on the restoration of the suit.

C. May or may not revive depending on the facts and circumstances of the case

D. Shall become revived on the Order of the appellate court.

5. In cases of withdrawal of suit by the plaintiff, under Order 23, Rule 1A of CPC

A. Defendants cannot be transported as plaintiff’s

B. Defendants can be transported as plaintiffs under all circumstances

C. Defendants can be transported as plaintiff if substantial question is to be decided against any of the defendants

D. Either (A) or (B)

6. Which of the following tests are to be applied in cases where the plea of bar of suit under Order 2 Rule 2 is raised?

A. Where the cause of action in the previous suit and that in the subsequent suit are identical

B. Whether the relief claimed in the subsequent suit could have been given in the previous suit on the basis of the pleadings filed in that suit

C. Whether the plaintiff omitted to sue for a particular relief on the cause of action which had been disclosed in the previous suit.

D. All of the above

7. Under Order VI, Rule 17 of CPC, the amendment of the pleading may be allowed

A. As may be necessary for determining the real controversy between the parties

B. As to introduce an entirely new and inconsistent case

C. As to take away a right of the defendant which has accrued to him by lapse of time

D. As to withdraw the admission made

8. After being proceeded against ex-parte, the defendant is

A. Precluded absolutely from participating in any proceeding in the suit

B. At liberty to join the proceedings at the stage where the proceedings are pending

C. At liberty to join the proceedings and do all the things which he could have done, had he not been proceeded against ex-parte, without getting the ex-porte order set aside

D. Either (A) or (C)

9. Which of the following is incorrect-

A. Property in the hands of the receiver cannot be attached without the permission of the court appointing him.

B. Receiver can purchase the property in respect of which he has been appointed

C. If the receiver fails to account for the gain and the loss ensued by his conduct, the Joss so occasioned can be made good by attaching and sale of the receiver’s personal property.

D. All of the above

10. Mark the incorrect statement in context of a representative suit:

A. If the person suing or defending does not proceed with due diligence, the Court can substitute in his place, any person having the same interest in the suit.

B. The suit can be withdrawn, compromised or abandoned by the plaintiff after giving notice to all persons interested.

C. Any decree passed in such a suit is binding on all the persons interested.

D. Res Judicata is not applicable to such a suit.

11. Who among the following are recognised agents who can make appearance or make applications and act on behalf of the parties

A. Persons holding power-of attorney, authorising them to make and do such appearances, applications and act on behalf of such parties

B. Persons carrying on trade or business for and in the name of the parties within the local limits of the jurisdiction if the Court

C. Where the party is the employer and the his agent is a employee

D. Both A and B

12. Where the subject-matter of the suit is immovable property, the plaint shall contain

A. A description of the property sufficient to identify it.

B. In case where the property can be identified by the boundaries or numbers in a record of settlement or survey, the plaint shall specify such boundaries or numbers.

C. The details of owner of the property in question has to be mentioned in the plaint

D. Both A and B

13. The court can enlarge the time under section 148 of CPC for doing any act prescribed or allowed under the Code of Civil Procedure, not exceeding in total

A. 90 days

B. 60 days

C. 45 days

D. 30 days

14. Where an application for leave to deliver interrogatories has been moved along with the interrogatories proposed to be delivered that application shall be decided as provided under Order XI. Rule 2 of CPC within

A. 15 days from the date of the submission of the application

B. 10 days from the date of the submission of the application

C. 7 days from the date of the submission of the application

D. No time limit prescribed for the purpose

15. A decree can be transferred to another court for execution if

A. If the judgment debtor actually and voluntarily resides or carries on business or personally works for gain, within the local limits of the other court

B. If the judgment debtor does not have sufficient property situated within the local limits of the court passing the decree and has a property within the local limits of the other court

C. If the decree directs sale or delivery of immovable property situated outside the jurisdiction of the court passing the decree

D. All of the above

16. The Punjab Courts Act, 1918 provides that:

A. The district judge shall have control over all the civil courts within local limits of his jurisdiction, subject to general superintendence and control of state government.

B. The district judge shall have control over all the civil courts within local limits of his jurisdiction, subject to general superintendence and control of central government.

C. The district judge shall have control over all the civil courts within local limits of his jurisdiction, subject to general superintendence and control of High Courts.

D. The district judge shall have control over all the civil courts within local limits of his jurisdiction and there shall be no superintendence and control over such jurisdiction.

17. Which one of the statements is not correct?

A. Oral acceptance is a valid acceptance

B. Acceptance must be in writing

C. Acceptance must be communicated

D. Acceptance must be in prescribed manner

18. In India, the doctrine of impossibility of performance rendering contracts void is based on:

A. The theory of implied term

B. Theory of Unjust Enrichment

C. Supervening impossibility”

D. Theory of just and reasonable solution

19. On attaining the age of Majority, the minor’s agreement

A. Can be ratified

B. becomes automatically valid

C. Cannot be ratified

D. becomes void

20. An agreement is considered to be against public policy when it is:

(i) Agreement for sale of public offices and titles

(ii) Marriage brokerage agreement

(iii) Agreement not to bid

(iv) Agreement for improper promotion of litigation


A. Only (i) is correct.

B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

C. All are correct.

D. All are incorrect.

21. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, coercion means

A. Committing of any act forbidden by IPC

B. Threatening to commit any act forbidden by IPC

C. Unlawful detention or threatening to detain any property to the prejudice of any person

D. All of the above

22. A party to a contract committing breach, is generally liable to pay compensation in respect of:

A. Losses used whether directly or indirectly

B. Direct consequences flowing from the breach of contract

C. Losses caused remotely

D. Any loss caused to the plaintiff

23. If the parties to a contract, agree to substitute a new contract for it or to rescind or alter it, the original contract–

A. Has to be performed

B. May or may not be performed

C. Need not be performed

D. Should be performed in case of rescission and alteration, but not in case of novation

24. An unpaid seller can exercise:

(i) Right of stoppage in transit

(ii) Right to lien

(iii) Right to re-sale


A. Any of the above three

B. Only (ii)

C. Only (i) and (ii)

D. Only (ii) and (iii)

25. Under Chapter V of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the term Seller includes:

A. Seller’s Agent

B. Unpaid Seller

C. Buyer

D. None of the above

26. Under which provision of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 has it been provided that unless the goods are ascertained, no property in goods passes to the buyer?

A. Section 18

B. Section 20

C. Section 23

D. Section 19

27. The true test of partnership is based on

A. Sharing of Profit only

B. Sharing of profit and loss

C. Mutual agency

D. Intention of the parties

28. A partnership firm gets dissolved when

A. A partner has become of unsound mind

B. A partner, other than the partner suing is guilty of conduct which is likely to affect prejudicially the carrying on of the business regard being had to the nature of the business

C. A partner has been adjudicated as insolvent

D. The business of the firm cannot be carried on save at a loss

29. Match the following and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I                                          

a) Dissolution by agreement       

b) Dissolution by court                

c) Dissolution on contingency    

d) Compulsory dissolution     

 List II

 (i) Section 40

 (ii) Section 44

 (iii) Section 42

 (iv) Section 41


(a) (b) (c) (d)

A. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

B. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

C. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

D. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

30. Unless the contrary intention appears, property and rights and interest in property acquired with money belonging to the firm are deemed to have been acquired for

A. The benefit of the Partners

B. The Firm

C. The benefit of both the Partners and the firm

D. The public in general

31. In which of the following cases Injunction cannot be granted:-

(i) If it would impede or delay the progress or completion of any infrastructure project or interfere with the continued provision of relevant facility related thereto or services being the subject matter of such project

(ii) When the plaintiff’ has personal interest in the matter

(iii) To prevent the breach of a contract the performance of which would not be specifically enforced

(iv) To restrain any person from instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a civil matter


A. (i) and (iv)

B. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

C. (i) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii) and (iv)

32. Section 34 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with:

A. Mere Declaration of the rights of the parties

B. Declaration of rights of the parties with or without an award of compensation

C. Specific Performance with declaration of rights of the parties

D. None of the above

33. Section 36 of the Specific Relief Act classifies injunctions into:

A. Two categories

B. Three categories

C. No Categorisation has been made

D. None of the above

34. Which of the following statement is false in relation to East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, 1949:

A. Residential building means any building which is not a non- residential building.

B. The rent determined or the fair rent cannot be increased except when some addition, improvement or alteration had been carried out at the landlord’s expense.

C. Any dispute in regard to increase in rent under section 5 shall not be decided by the Rent Controller.

D. Landlord shall not claim or receive any premium or any other like sum in addition to the fair rent or any rent in excess of such fair rent.

35. Non-Residential Indian means a person of Indian origin, who is either permanently or temporarily settled outside India in either case:

A. For or on taking up employment outside India.

B. For carrying on a business or vocation outside India.

C. For any other purpose, in such circumstances, as would indicate his intention to stay outside India for an uncertain period.

D. All the above.

36. No person shall convert a residential building into a non-residential building except

A. with the permission of the Controller B

B. with the permission of appropriate authority

C. with the permission in writing of the Controller

D. Any of the above

37. An inference of fact or law drawn from other known or proved facts is called?

A. Presumption

B. Circumstantial evidence

C. Fact in issue

D. Relevant fact

38. The maxim ‘falus in uno, falus in omnibus’ is____________.

A. A sound rule of evidence

B. A sound rule of law

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

39. Which of the following is not a public document?

A. An order issuing a search warrant

B. A crop-cutting report by a collector

C. Order of competent authority fixing prices of commodities

D. Plaint or written statement in a suit

40. Any fact may be proved which would invalidate any document, or which would entitle any person to any decree or order relating thereto; such as_____________.

A. Fraud, intimidation or illegality

B. Want of due execution or want of capacity in any contracting party

C. Want or failure of consideration, or mistake in fact or law

D. All of the above

41. The burden of proof under Section 102 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872,_____________.

A. Always shifts

B. Never shifts

C. Shifts in criminal cases

D. None of the above

42. A leading question is permissible only in________________.

A. Examination in chief

B. Cross examination

C. Re examination

D. All of the above

43. Match the following-

List I

a) Section 79 of the Indian Evidence Act

b) Section 80 of the Indian Evidence Act

c) Section 83 of the Indian Evidence Act

d) Section 81A of the Indian Evidence Act

List II

(i) Presumption as to documents produced as record of evidence

(ii) Presumption as to genuineness of certified copies

(iii) Presumption as to gazettes in electronic forms

(iv) Presumption as to maps or plans made by authority of Government


A. (a )and (ii). (b) and (i). (c) and (iv). (d) and (iii)

B. (a) and (iii), (b) and (i), (c) and (iv). (d) and (ii)

C. (a) and (ii). (b) and (iii), (c) and (iv). (d) and (ii)

D. (a) and (ii), (b) and (i). (c) and (iii). (d) and (iv)

44. Under the provisions of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 for an admission to be considered as a substantive evidence-

A. It need not be voluntary

B. It must be judicial admission

C. It must be binding to the question of law

D. It need not be in writing

45. In order to make the evidence admissible as part of ‘res gestae’___________.

A. The statement must have been made immediately after the act

B. The statement must have been contemporaneously with the act

C. The statement must have been made any time after the act

D. Either (A) or (B)

46. Confessions contain exculpatory and inculpatory parts. The Court can dissect the confession and use the inculpatory part alone if______________.

A. The exculpatory part is inherently improbable

B. The exculpatory part contradicts the accused’s statement under S.313 of Cr.P.C.

C. C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

47. A dispute regarding handwriting can be proved by ______________. Choose the most appropriate answer.

A. Calling an expert

B. Examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned document

C. Spouse and other relatives

D. Both (A) and (B)

48. What is direct evidence? Choose the most appropriate answer.

(i) Evidence given where witness testifies directly of his own knowledge as to the main fact or facts in dispute

(ii) That which tends to prove the fact at issue without the intervention of proof of any other fact

(iii) One requiring support of other evidences

(iv) When the principal fact, or factum probandum, is attested directly by witnesses, things or documents


A. Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

B. All of them are correct

C. Only (i) and (ii) are correct

D. Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

49. Under Section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, a Hindu marriage may be solemnized according to the Customary rites and ceremonies of:

A. Both the parties

B. Either of the parties

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. Only A)

50. Under which provision of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the alternative relief for divorce proceedings in the form of a decree for judicial separation has been provided?

A. Section 13

B. Section 14

C. Section 13 B

D. None of the above

51. Can a suit lie in the Civil Court for obtaining the decree for annulment of a Hindu marriage after the death of the spouses?

A. No, the suit will not lie.

B. Yes, the suit will lie,

C. Depends.

D. None of the above.

52. A marries his mother’s sister’s daughter’s daughter. Whether this marriage is valid marriage under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

A. Yes

B. No

C. Depends

D. None of the above.

53. The presumption of marriage by continuous cohabitation between the parties will not apply in the case of:

A. Restitution of Conjugal Rights

B. Bigamy

C. If there are contrary circumstances

D. All of the above

54. The statement “While there is no rose which has no thorns but if what you hold is all thorn and no rose, better throw it away” relates to”

A. Restitution of Conjugal Rights

B. Judicial Separation

C. Divorce by Mutual Consent

D. Irretrievable Breakdown of Marriage

55. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. Mutual consent should continue till the divorce decree is granted.

B. Mere non-compliance of with the decree of Restitution does constitute a wrong under Section 23 (1) (a).

C. Husband’s failure to make efforts at resumption of cohabitation or his failure to pay alimony does amount to taking advantage of his own wrong.

D. A consent decree cannot be the basis of petition for divorce under Section 13 (1A)

56. If a valid marriage does not exist between the parties, no decree for __________ can be passed.

A. Nullity of marriage

B. Restitution of Conjugal Rights

C. Divorce

D. Judicial Separation

57. Can the Father or the mother exercise the right to give child in adoption without the consent of the other?

A. No.

B. Yes

C. Yes, in exceptional circumstances

D. Never.

58. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956, preserves which mode of devolution of property?

A. By Survivorship

B. By Succession

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above.

59. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not apply to the property of a person who is married under the:

A. Special Marriage Act

B. Hindu Marriage Act

C. Child Marriage Restraint Act

D. None of the above.

60. A Step-mother comes into the category of:

A. Class I heir

B. Class II heir

C. Agnate

D. Cognate

61. The property that a female Hindu inherits from her father or mother is included in which provision of the Hindu Succession Act?

A. Section 15 (1) (a)

B. Section 15 (2) (a)

C. Section 15 (3) (b)

D. Section 14

62. In which of the following cases, the court discussed that “the whimsical and capricious divorce by the husband is good in law, though bad in theology”?

A. Shah Bano Case

B. Bai Tahira Case

C. Shamim Ara Case

D. Sarabai Case

63. What is the position of unpaid dower as per Muslim personal laws:-

A. Unsecured Creditors

B. Secured Creditors

C. Both A and B

D. None of the above

64. A Karta can alienate the Joint Family property for:

A. Apatkale

B. Kutumbarthe

C. Dharamarthe

D. All of the above

65. Under section 32 of the Indian Registration Act a document for registration can be presented

A. By the person executing the document

B. By the representative of the executor

C. By the agent of the executor authorised through a valid power of attorney

D. Any of the above.

66. Registration of which of the following documents is optional under the Registration Act, 1908?

A. lease of immovable property from year to year, or for any term exceeding one year, or reserving a yearly rent

B. instruments acknowledging the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration, assignment, limitation or extinction of any such right, title or interest

C. instruments of gift of immovable property

D. None of the above

67. Which of the following terms is not defined under Section 2 of the Registration Act, 1908?

A. Registration

B. Addition

C. Endorsement

D. Lease

68. For the purpose of the Limitation Act, 1963, which of the following claims shall be treated as a separate suit?

A. Set off

B. Counter Claim

C. Both (A) and (B)

D. None of the above

69. The period of limitation shall commence-

A. on the date of the offence

B. Where the commission of the offence was not known to the person aggrieved by the offence or to any police officer, the first day on which such offence comes to the knowledge of such person or to any police officer. whichever is earlier

C. where it is not known by whom the offence was committed, the first day on which the identity of the offender is known to the person aggrieved by the offence or to the police officer making investigation into the offence, whichever is earlier

D. All of the above

70. Limitation Act, 1963 applies to which of the following proceedings?

A. Civil

B. Criminal

C. Both A & B

D. Foreign awards

71. Limitation Act, 1963 bars

A. Right

B. Duty

C. Liability

D. Remedy

72. The limitation for suit by person dispossessed of immovable property under section 6 of the Specific relief Act, 1963 is

A. As per the provisions of the Limitation Act, 1963

B. Six months from the date of dispossession

C. Three years from the date of dispossession

D. One year from the date of dispossession

73. Every person has right to private defence of

A. his own body

B. his own body and property

C. his own body and property and the body of any other person

D. his own body and property and the body and property of any other person

74. A finds a valuable ring, not knowing to whom it belongs. A sells it immediately without attempting to discover the owner. A is guilty of an offence of

A. Dishonest misappropriation of property

B. Criminal breach of trust

C. Theft

D. No offence

75. Act causing slight harm is

A. an offence

B. no offence

C. no offence if that harm is so slight that no person of ordinary sense and temper would complain of such harm

D. None of the above.

76. A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. Here, A is guilty of

A. only abetting B

B. abetting B to commit murder

C. murder

D. None of the above

77. If an accused takes the plea of his case being covered under any of the general exceptions provided under Chapter IV of IPC, the burden of proof in that case lies-

A. Entirely on the prosecution

B. Entirely on the accused

C. On the accused and he has to discharge that burden beyond all reasonable doubt

D. On the accused and he has to discharge the burden on preponderance of probability

78. The Supreme Court struck down Section 497 of IPC as unconstitutional in the case of

A. Navjet Singh Johar and others vs. Union of India

B. Indian Young Lawyers’ Association vs. Union of India

C. Joseph Shine vs. Union of India

D. Justice K. S. Puttuswamy and Another vs. Union of India and others

79. The preamble of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 aims to provide a ______________.

A. Comprehensive penal code

B. General penal code

C. Exclusive penal code

D. None of these

80. Which of the following is not an essential element of statutory crimes?

A. Mens rea

B. Actus reus

C. Legal causation

D. None of the above

81. The Mc Naughten’s test is applied to which of the following?

A. Insanity

B. Intoxication

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

82. Section 109 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, is a

A. Rule of evidence

B. Substantive offence

C. A procedure

D. Defining clause

83. For the purpose of application of Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, offence should be an offence under ________________.

A. Indian Penal Code

B. Special or Local law

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

84. Which of the following cases is considered as locus classicus on Section 300 thirdly of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

A. Shivaji Sahabrao Bobade v. State of Maharashtra

B. Virsa Singh v. State of Punjab

C. Rudal Shah v. State of Bihar

D. None of the above

85. The point of difference between Extortion and Cheating, lies in _________________.

A. Mens rea

B. Way of obtaining consent

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

86. A falsely promises an orphan village girl aged about 15 years for imparting good education and job prospects in the city. The girl accompanies 4 but in the city she neither gets education nor a good job. Can be prosecuted for the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship under Section 361 of IPC?

A. Yes

B. No, because she came along voluntarily

C. No, because the girl being orphan was not under the custody of lawful guardian

D. Yes, because the girl was a minor and was misled by A

87. X, a wounded soldier requests his commander Y to shoot him, in order to relieve him from pain. The latter shoots him to death. X is guilty of __________________.

A. Murder

B. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

C. No offence

D. None of the above

88. A police officer after investigation of an offence submits a report before the magistrate which discloses the commission of a non cognizable offence shall be deemed to be ______________.

A. Not a complaint but that police officer can be a prosecutor.

B. A complaint and that police officer can be a prosecutor.

C. A complaint but that police officer cannot be a prosecutor.

D. Only a police report but not complaint.

89. The Additional Sessions Judge is subordinate to which of the following?

A. Both High Court and Sessions Judge.

B. Only High Court.

C. Only Sessions Judge

D. None of the above

90. In order to arrest a person, who is reasonably suspected of being a deserter from any of the armed forces of the Union, the police officer shall take prior sanction from ______________.

A. Commanding officer of person

B. State government

C. Central government

D. None of the above

91. A proclamation issued under section 82 (1) of The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 cannot prescribe a date earlier than ________________ to appear before such Court.

A. 3 months

B. 15 days

C. 1 month

D. 30 days

92. The word ‘wife’ used in section 125 (1) (a) of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, means

(i) Legally wedded wife

(ii) Wife separated from her husband under a decree of judicial separation

(iii) A divorced wife not remarried

(iv) A divorced wife who has remarried

Choose the most appropriate answer.

A. (i) (ii) (iii)

B. (i) (ii)

C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

D. (i) (iii)

93. Who may pass a conditional order under section 133 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?

A. Any magistrate

B. District magistrate

C. Any Judicial magistrate of first class

D. Chief Judicial magistrate

94. For the purpose of grant of leave to appeal under Section 394 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the term near relative does not mean?

A. Lineal descendant

B. Brother

C. Uncle

D. Wife separated under the decree of judicial separation

95. In which case the Supreme Court held that section 125 Cr. P.C. was applicable to all irrespective of their religion?

A. Mohd. Umar Khan Vs. Gulshan Begum

B. Mohd. Ahmad Khan Vs. Shah Bano Begum

C. Mst. Zohara Khattoon Vs. Modh. Ibrahim

D. Noor Saba Khatoon Vs. Mohd. Quasim

96. What can be done among the options mentioned below when the approver willfully suppresses material facts or gives false evidence:

A. The court does not have inherent power to proceed against Approver

B. Police can take action against him

C. On the request of police, court can take action against Approver

D. The court itself has inherent power to proceed against Approver

97. Section 41 Cr. P.C. is not controlled by Section 55 Cr. P.C. as:

A. the arrest is made with a warrant

B. the arrest is without a warrant

C. the arrest affects the investigation

D. there is no arrest at all

98. Parliament is a “Continual Constituent Assembly’ opinion was delivered by which judge?

A. Justice Dwivedi

B. Justice Ray

C. Justice Chandrachud

D. Justice Khanna

99. Under Article 324 of the Constitution, the Election Commission of India shall be responsible to conduct elections to

(i) Parliament and State Legislature

(ii) President and Vice-President

(iii) Zilla Parishad and Panchayats

(iv) Municipal Corporations and Municipal Committees


A. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

B. (i) and (ii)

C. (i), (ii) and (iii)

D. (i), (ii) and (iv)

100. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using codes given below

a) K.S Puttuswamy v. Uol (i) Right to privacy

b) Shayara Bano v.Uol (ii) Triple Talaq

c) Navtej Singh Johar (iii) Adultery

d) Joseph Shine v. Uol (iv) Sexual Orientation

Codes: (a) (b) (c) (d)

              A. iii ii i iv

             B. i ii iv iii

             C. iii ii iv i

             D. iii iv i ii

101. Which of the following statements are correct?

(i) The Basic Structure of the Constitution of India cannot be amended

(ii) Parliamentary Democracy is included in the list of ‘Basic Structure of the Constitution of India

(iii) According to convention of Parliamentary Democracy, the Prime Minister has to be from the House of People

(iv) Article 83 of the Constitution of India deals with the duration of Houses of Parliament


A. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct

B. (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

D. (i). (ii) and (iv) are correct

102. E is the sister of B. A is the father of C. B is the son of C. How is A related to E?

A. Grandfather

B. Granddaughter

C. Father

D. Great-grandfather

103. If REASON is coded as 5 and BELIEVED as 7, then what is the code for GOVERNMENT?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 8

D. 6

104. Assertion (A): Article 21 implicitly incorporates the concept of due process of law

Reason (R): Due process of law is an attribute of liberty


A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

C. (A) is correct but (R) is false

D. (A) is false but (R)is correct

105. Under which of the following condition(s) a writ of mandamus can be granted? Give correct answer by using the codes

a) There must be a public duty.

b) There must be a specific demand and refusal.

c) There must be a clear right to enforce the duty.

d) The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition.


A. All (a), (b), (c) and (d) are correct.

B. Only (a), (b) and (c) are correct.

C. Only (a) and (e) are correct.

D. Only (a) and (b) are correct

106. During a financial emergency, the executive authority of the union exercises control over state finances through the following measures:

1. It can issues directions to state to observe certain cannons of financial propriety

2. It can ask the states to reserve their money bills for the consideration of the president

3. It can direct the states to reduce the salaries and allowances of all the persons serving in connection with the affairs of the states, including the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts


A. (1) and (2)

B. Only (1)

C. (2) and (3)

D. (1), (2) and (3)-

107. Which of the following words is not used with Liberty’ in the preamble of the Constitution?

A. Worship

B. Speech

C. Expression

D. Faith

108. The total number of Ministers in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not be less than?

A. Fifteen

B. Twenty five

C. Twelve

D. Thirty

109. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court stated that the pardoning power of President is subject to judicial review?

A. Kehar Singh v. Union of India

B. Jumman khan v. State of UP

C. Epuran Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh

D. Sher Singh v. State of Punjab

110. The term Consequential Seniority is mentioned under which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

A. Article 16(5)

B. Article 16(4A)

C. Article 16(4B)

D. Article 16(6)

111. The Article 22 of the Constitution provides protection against which of the following?

A. Preventive detention

B. Detention

C. Arrest

D. All of the above

112. Which Indian state has the largest number of cotton textile mills?

A. Madhya Pradesh

B. Maharashtra

C. Gujarat

D. West Bengal

113. Which of the following organizations looks after the credit needs of agriculture and rural development in India?





114. Chelliah Committee of 1992 deals with the overhauling of our

A. public sector undertakings

B. financial system

C. tax system

D. patents and copyrights

115. Bank rate means

A. interest rate charged by moneylenders

B. interest rate charged by scheduled banks

C. rate of profit of the banking institution

D. the official rate of interest charged by the central bank of the country

116. In India, income tax is levied by

A. Union Government

B. State Governments

C. Ministry of Finance


117. On which river is the Pong Dam hydroelectric power project built?

A. Indus

B. Ravi

C. Beas

D. Satluj

118. The Indian sprinter who won gold medal in women’s 100m in World Universiade, 30 Summer University Games held in Naples, Italy is?

A. Hima Das,

B. Manika Batra,

C. Dutee Chand

D. Poovamma Raju Machettira

119. Which city of Rajasthan has recently been declared UNESCO World Heritage site?

A. Bikaner

B. Udaipur

C. Jaipur

D. Jodhpur

120. FAME-India scheme stands for?

A. The Faster Adoption and Manufacturing of (Hybrid &) Electric Vehicles

B. Forest Access Managerial Employment

C. Foreign Accountability Money Expenditure

D. Fast Annual Mechanised

121. Ghumar or Jhumar is the most popular folk dance of ______________?

A. Rajasthan

B. Gujarat

C. Uttarakhand

D. Jharkhand

122. Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa means

A. Nobody can be treated unequally.

B. no man shall be punished twice for the same offence.

C. Wrongdoer should be punished

D. Every offence is punishable

123. Interest Reipublicae Ut Sit Finis Litium means

A. State is supreme

B. Rule of law

C. In the interest of the state that there should be an end to litigation.

D. Litigation to be contested

124. Lis pendens is not applicable le suit or proceedings which is

A. Ex-parte

B. Collusive

C. Pending service of notice

D. In execution

125. A gift can be revoked in any of the cases it might be rescinded if it were a contract, except for:

A. Want of consideration

B. Allegations of fraud and undue influence

C. Coercion

D. All of the above.

Answer Key

1. D

2. C

3. C

4. B

5. C

6. D

7. A


9. B

10. D

11. D

12. D

13. D

14. C

15. D

16. C

17. B

18. C

19. C

20. C

21. D

22. B

23. C

24. A

25. A

26. A

27. C

28. C

29. A

30. B

31. C

32. A

33. A

34. C

35. D

36. C

37. A

38. A

39. D

40. D

41. A

42. B

43. A

44. D

45. D

46. C

47. D

48. A

49. B

50. D

51. A

52. A

53. D

54. D

55. A

56. Deleted

57. C

58. C

59. A

60. B

61. B

62. C

63. A

64. D

65. D

66. B

67. A

68. C

69. D

70. C

71. D

72. B

73. D

74. A

75. C

76. B

77. D

78. C

79. B

80. A

81. C

82. B

83. A

84. B

85. B

86. C

87. C

88. C

89. B

90. D

91. D

92. A

93. B

94. C

95. B

96. D

97. B

98. A

99. B

100. B

101. Deleted

102. A

103. B

104. A

105. B

106. D

107. B

108. C

109. A

110. B

111. D

112. B

113. C

114. C

115. D

116. A

117. C

118. C

119. C

120. A

121. A

122. B

123. C

124. B

125. A

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