Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims

Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims


Indian Penal Code (IPC)- Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims

A ready compilation of 100 Indian Penal Code (IPC) MCQs for ease and regularity of practice with the aim of enhancing students’ general understanding of the subject and boosting their preparation by familiarising them with questions similar to the exam pattern of popular law and judiciary exams.

For more Indian Penal Code (IPC) MCQs 1000+ with solutions and explanations visit Law Aspirants. Click here for the Indian Penal Code Test Series.

Review your understanding of Indian Penal Code with Test Series containing high-quality MCQs.

Also, master law subjects and prepare with the “Mega test Series”. Ideal for the judiciary and every law exam with core and minor law subjects. Click here for the Mega Test Series

Indian Penal Code MCQs

Q.1) Five persons went to the house of Z armed with clubs to beat Z. Among these, one A was carrying a pistol concealing it underneath his clothes. During beating, A fired a shot resulting in Z’s death.

A. Only A will be liable for causing the death

B. All of the above will be liable for beating Z

C. All of the above being the members of unlawful assembly will be liable for causing death

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.2) In which case Strachey, J. held that “a man must not make or try to make others feel enmity of any kind towards the government”?

A. Queen-Empress v. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

B. Queen-Empress v. Jogendra Chandra Bose

C. Emperor v. Sada Shiv Narayan

D. Emperor v. Beni Bhusan Roy

Answer: A

Q.3) Consent known to be given under fear or misconception is stated in:

A. Section 90

B. Section 91

C. Section 92

D. Section 93

Answer: A

Q.4) Which one of the following cases is not related with Section 84, Indian Penal Code?

A. Ashiruddin Ahmed v. King

B. R v. Dudley & Stephens

C. Dayabhai Chhaganbhai Thakkar v. State of Gujarat

D. State of M.P. v. Ahmadullah

Answer: B

Q.5) Which of the following offence is punishable only in the attempt stage:

A. Section 307 of the Indian Penal Code

B. Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code

C. Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Q.6) Whoever commits the offence of undue influence or personation at an election shall be punished under:

A. Section 171E

B. Section 171F

C. Section 171C

D. Section 171B

Answer: B

Q.7) Mark the incorrect statement.

A. In an ‘unlawful assembly”https://www.legalbites.in/”riot’, there must be five or more members

B. An ‘affray’ can be committed by two or more

C. An ‘unlawful assembly”https://www.legalbites.in/”riot’ can take place in a public or private place

D. An ‘affray’ must take place in a private place only

Answer: D

Q.8) Promotion of hatred among classes of society is an offence under section ________ of the Indian Penal Code.

A. 121A

B. 122A

C. 153A

D. 154A

Answer: C

Q.9) Which of the following statement/statements is/are Incorrect?

(i) Nothing is offence which is done in exercise of right of Private Defence under Indian Penal Code

(ii) A person has right to defend his own body only and not the body of other

(iii) Right of Private Defence is extended to cause death in defamation case

(iv) A person has even right of Private Defence where there is time to have recourse to the protection of the public authorities.

A. Only (iii) is incorrect

B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are incorrect

C. (ii), (iii) and (iv) are incorrect

D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) all are incorrect

Answer: C

Q.10) X knows Y is suffering from a particular disease in which he can die if given a simple blow. X causes a simple blow to Y with an intention to cause bodily injury. Y dies. X is guilty of:

A. Murder

B. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

C. Grievous hurt

D. Simple hurt

Answer: A

Q.11) Which of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code may be resorted to abate the pollution?

A. Section 268

B. Section 258

C. Section 298

D. Section 195

Answer: A

Q.12) The ‘actus non facit reum, nisi mens sit rea’ maxim was established by:

A. Equity principle

B. Roman law

C. Common law

D. House of Lords

Answer: C

Q.13) The right of private defence of property is not available against the offence of:

A. Criminal trespass

B. Mischief

C. Theft

D. Criminal misappropriation

Answer: D

Q.14) Which one of the following statements is correct?

A. Amount and intensity of disaffection is immaterial under Section 124-A except in dealing with the question of punishment

B. Amount and intensity of disaffection is material under Section 124-A

C. Amount and intensity of disaffection is not relevant for dealing with question of punishment

D. None of the above is correct

Answer: A

Q.15) Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

A. Mens rea – R. v. Prince

B. Necessity – D.P.P. v. Beard

C. Insanity – M’Naghten case

D. Intoxication – Basudev v. State of Pepsu

Answer: B

Q.16) A and Z agree to fence with each other for amusement. This agreement implies the consent of each to suffer any harm which, in the course of such fencing, may be caused without foul play. A while playing fairly, hurts Z and as a result, Z dies. A is liable:

A. For causing hurt to Z

B. For murder to Z by negligence

C. For no offence

D. For culpable homicide not amounting to murder

Answer: C

Q.17) Which one of the following is an essential ingredient of sedition?

A. Dishonest intention

B. Mala fide intention

C. Words spoken must cause public disorder by acts of violence

D. Exciting disaffection towards the Government

Answer: D

Q.18) Causing of the death of child in the mother’s womb is not homicide as provided under:

A. Explanation V to Section 300

B. Explanation I to Section 299

C. Explanation II to Section 299

D. Explanation III to Section 299

Answer: D

Q.19) Act of a person of unsound mind fall under General Exception under:

A. Section 84

B. Section 85

C. Section 86

D. Section 87

Answer: A

Q.20) A agree with “B” that he will help “B” in copying in his examination; this is an act of:

A. Criminal conspiracy

B. Abetment

C. Common intention

D. Common object

Answer: A

Q.21) Whoever is guilty of rioting, being armed with a deadly weapon or with anything which, used as a weapon of offence, is likely to cause death, shall be punished under:

A. Section 148

B. Section 149

C. Section 150

D. Section 151

Answer: A

Q.22) Maximum sentence of imprisonment that can be awarded for the offence of Affray:

A. Three months

B. Two months

C. One month

D. Six months

Answer: C

Q.23) Under Section 44 of the Indian Penal Code, the term ‘Injury” means any harm:

A. Illegally caused to a person in body and mind

B. Illegally caused to a person in body, mind, reputation or property

C. Illegally caused to a person in body and property

D. Illegally caused to a person in body, mind and reputation

Answer: B

Q.24) Word ‘Dishonestly’ as defined in Section 24 of Indian Penal Code means:

A. With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person

B. With the intențion of causing wrongful loss to another person

C. With the intention of causing wrongful gain to one person or with the intention of causing wrongful loss to another person

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.25) Common intention signifies:

A. Similar intention

B. Prearrange planning

C. Presence of common knowledge

D. Common design for common objects

Answer: B

Q.26) The onus of proving exception lies on the:

A. Prosecution

B. Accused

C. Prosecution in certain cases and accused in other cases

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.27) Under section 103 of Indian Penal Code, the right to Private defence of property extends to causing death if the offence is:

A. House-breaking by night

B. Robbery

C. Mischief by fire committed on any building

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.28) A, B and C plan to enter into a jewellery shop and commit theft at the shop. They collect the implements of house breaking and go to the jewellery shop to execute their plan. On reaching there, they find a police patrol van stationed outside the shop and hence return. Their act amounts to:

A. Attempt to commit housebreaking

B. Criminal conspiracy

C. Attempt to commit theft

D. Both A and C

Answer: B

Q.29) The abetment of offence is completed as soon as:

A. The offence abetted has been committed

B. The abettor has incited another person to commit an offence

C. The person abetted has done some overt act towards the commission of the offence

D. The abettor has done something at the time of commission of the offence itself to help its commission

Answer: B

Q.30) Which of the following is not an offence against the State, under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

A. Spreading infection of disease dangerous to life

B. Waging war against the Government of India

C. Sedition

D. Assaulting Governor of a State with intent to compel to exercise of any lawful power

Answer: A

Q.31) Unlawful assembly has been defined under:

A. Section 141 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 142 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 143 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 144 Indian Penal Code

Answer: A

Q.32) Whoever, not belonging to a certain class of public servants, wears any garb or carries any token resembling any garb or token used by that class of public servants, with the intention that it may be believed, or with the knowledge that it is likely to be believed, that he belongs to that class of public servants, shall be punished under:

A. Section 170 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 171 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 172 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 173 Indian Penal Code

Answer: B

Q.33) Mark the incorrect statement.

A. If the common object of an assembly is not illegal, it is not rioting even if force is used by a member of it

B. If persons lawfully assembled for any purpose suddenly quarrel, they do not commit riot

C. Spectators and wayfarers that have been attracted to the scene of rioting can be punished for rioting

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.34) Whoever knowingly joins or continues in any assembly of five or more persons likely to cause a disturbance of the public peace, after such assembly has been lawfully commanded to disperse, shall be punished under:

A. Section 148 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 149 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 150 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 151 Indian Penal Code

Answer: D

Q.35) A personates B at a trial with B’s consent, which was given to save himself from the trouble to making an appearance in person before a Magistrate.

A. A is guilty of personation (Section 205)

B. A is guilty of personation (Section 215)

C. A is guilty of personation (Section 216)

D. A is guilty of personation (Section 217)

Answer: A

Q.36) A’ makes a false entry in his shop-book for the purpose of using it as corroborative evidence in a court of justice. ‘A’ is guilty of:

A. Fabricating false evidence

B. Giving false evidence

C. Abetment

D. Criminal conspiracy

Answer: A

Q.37) Which of the following is an offence under the Indian Penal Code?

A. Keeping an office for the purpose of drawing any lottery not being a State lottery

B. Receiving profits from a business which the person knows is for making obscene books to be sold

C. Selling an obscene object to a person aged 19 years

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.38) Culpable homicide means:

A. Attempt to cause death

B. Causing death intentionally

C. Causing grievous injury

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.39) The distinction between Sections 299 and 300 Indian Penal Code was made clear by:

A. Marshall, J in R v. Govinda

B. Melvin, J in Govinda v. R

C. Melvill, J in R v. Govinda

D. Marshall, J in Govinda v. R

Answer: C

Q.40) Which of the following is common between ‘making false evidence’ and ‘fabricating false evidence’?

A. Intention

B. Made on material point

C. Maker to be bound by oath or express provision of law

D. Both B and C

Answer: A

Q.41) Right of private defence of the body begins:

A. When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises

B. When there is an àttack on the body

C. When public authorities have refused protection

D. When mental peace is disturbed

Answer: A

Q.42) Act to which a person is compelled by threats is not an offence by virtue of:

A. Section 93 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 94 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 95 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 96 Indian Penal Code

Answer: B

Q.43) The revisional jurisdiction can be invoked by the appellate court in:

A. erroneous judgment

B. there is no compliance with the provisions of law

C. material evidence is ignored

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.44) A’ refuse to answer a quesțion which is relevant to the subject concerning which the public servant is authorized to inquire. ‘A’ is liable to be punished:

A. Under Section 179 of Indian Penal Code

B. Under Section 180 of Indian Penal Code

C. Under Section 181 of Indian Penal Code

D. Under Section 173 of Indian Penal Code

Answer: A

Q.45) Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines Electronic record?

A. Section 29A

B. Section 30A

C. Section 31A

D. Section 32A

Answer: A

Q.46) Document is defined under Indian Penal Code in:

A. Section 28

B. Section 29

C. Section 30

D. Section 31

Answer: B

Q.47) The Supreme Court of India has observed a clear distinction between dishonestly and fraudulently in the case of:

A. Nathu Lal v. State of M.P.

B. Dr. Vimla v. Delhi Administration

C. Central Bank of India v. Narain

D. Mubarik Ali v. State of Bombay

Answer: B

Q.48) Common intention and similar intention was distinguished in the famous case:

A. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor

B. Mehboob Shah v. Emperor

C. Kripal Singh v. State of UP

D. Rishidey Pandey v. State of UP

Answer: B

Q.49) According to Section 52 of Indian Penal Code, 1860, nothing is said to be done or believed in good faith whịch is done or believed without:

A. Due care or diligence

B. Due attention or bonafide care

C. Due care and attention

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.50) A instigates B to cause grievous hurt to Z. B does so, but Z died:

A. A is not liable for punishment for murder

B. A is liable for punishment for murder

C. A is not liable for any punishment

D. None of the above answers is correct

Answer: D

Q.51) A, with the intention of murdering Z, instigates B (a lunatic) to give poison to Z. B, however, takes poison himself:

A. A is guilty of abetment

B. A is guilty of causing death of lunatic (B)

C. A is not guilty as B, a lunatic, cannot be an offender in the eyes of law

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.52) The principle of proximity of crime under criminal law is irrelevant, while deciding the liability for the offence of:

A. Theft and dacoity

B. Culpable homicide and murder

C. Kidnapping and abduction

D. Abetment and conspiracy

Answer: D

Q.53) Which one of the following is punishable as sedition?

A. Bitter criticism of the government to overthrow it

B. Inducing people to cease to obey law and lawful authority

C. A publicist attack on policies of the government

D. An attempt to remove the ministers from power

Answer: B

Q.54) Which of the following is are true in the context of abetment? ‘A’ says to ‘B’ ” l intend to kill ‘C”. ‘B’ says, “Do as you like”, ‘A’ kills ‘C’. ‘B’ is guilty of:

A. Attempt

B. Instigation

C. Abetment to murder

D. None of the above

Answer: D

Q.55) A, B, and C decide amongst themselves to persuade D to steal jewellery from the house of M and they accordingly do so. D readily agrees and sets out towards M’s house in order to steal jewellery.

A. A, B and C are liable for conspiracy to commit theft

B. A, B, C and D are liable for criminal conspiracy

C. A, B, and C are liable for criminal conspiracy, but D is not liable for any offence because his act only amounts to preparation

D. Both A and C are correct

Answer: B

Q.56) In one of the famous cases, the Supreme Court has made the following observation: “The right of private defence is a right of defence and it is not a right of retribution”.

A. State of U.P. v. Ram Swarup

B. State of Punjab v. Nanak Chand

C. Deo Narain v. State of U.P.

D. State of H.P. v. Wazir Chand

Answer: A

Q.57) Section 149 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is:

A. A declaratory provision

B. Creates a distinct offence

C. A rule of evidence

D. All of the above

Answer: B

Q.58) Offences relating to the army, navy and air force falls under Indian Penal Code in:

A. Section 130 – 140

B. Section 131 – 140

C. Section 131 – 141

D. Section 130 – 141

Answer: B

Q.59) The injury contemplated under section 503 of Indian Penal Code is:

A. Illegal harm

B. Unintentional harm

C. Legal harm

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.60) Section 354 Indian Penal codes deals with:

A. Criminal Assault

B. Affray

C. Outrage the modesty

D. Stalking

Answer: C

Q.61) Which of the following punishments cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal Code?

A. Imprisonment for life

B. Death sentence

C. Transportation for life

D. Forfeiture of property

Answer: C

Q.62) A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’ who refuses to do so. ‘A’ is guilty of:

A. Abetment to commit murder

B. No offence

C. Criminal conspiracy

D. Criminal instigation

Answer: A

Q.63) Which Section of the Indian Penal Code codifies, in the field of criminal law, the maxim: ‘de minimis non curat lex’?

A. Section 95

B. Section 96

C. Section 97

D. Section 98

Answer: A

Q.64) Section 497 of Indian Penal Code is struck down by the Supreme Court in which of the following case?

A. Navtejsingh Johar v. Union of India

B. Joseph Shine v. Union of India

C. Tahsean S. Poonawala v. Union of India

D. Naz Foundation Trust v. Suresh Kumar Kaushal

Answer: B

Q.65) Which Section of the Indian Penal Code states that nothing is an offence which is done in pursuant to the judgment or order of Court?

A. Section 76

B. Section 77

C. Section 78

D. Section 79

Answer: C

Q.66) Abettor is a person:

A. Who commits the offence

B. Who instigates the commission of offence

C. Against whom the offence is committed

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.67) Definition of insanity is developed on:

A. Automatism

B. M’Naghten rule

C. Atavism

D. Equivocality test

Answer: B

Q.68) As per Indian Penal Code, gang rape is punished under:

A. Section 376A

B. Section 376C

C. Section 376D

D. Section 376E

Answer: C

Q.69) In which case it was held that the death penalty shall be inflicted only in the rarest of rare cases:

A. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab

B. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab

C. Balwant Singh v. UOI

D. Rajendra Prasad v. State of UP

Answer: A

Q.70) Attempt to wage a war against Indian government is punishable under which section of Indian Penal Code:

A. Section 121

B. Section 121 A

C. Section 122

D. Section 124

Answer: A

Q.71) Which section of the Indian Penal Code deals with the defence of involuntary intoxication:

A. Section 84

B. Section 85

C. Section 86

D. Section 87

Answer: B

Q.72) Word “person” for the purpose of Section 2 Indian Penal Code includes:

A. Citizens

B. Association

C. Company

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.73) Nothing is an offence if it is done by a person who is a:

A. Boy of 6 years having sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequence of his conduct

B. Girl of 12 years having sufficient maturity to understand the nature and consequence of her conduct

C. A boy aged 15 years

D. All of the above

Answer: A

Q.74) Punishment for committing affray is given under:

A. Section 157 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 158 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 159 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 160 Indian Penal Code

Answer: D

Q.75) In which of the following cases did Supreme Court make it clear that ‘mere criticism or comments on government would not amount to the offence of sedition’?

A. Ranbir Singh v. State of Haryana

B. Gyan Kaur v. State of Punjab

C. Kedarnath v. State of Bihar

D. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India

Answer: C

Q.76) Whoever, being a public servant and having the custody of any State prisoner or prisoner of war, negligently suffers such prisoner to escape from any place of confinement in which such prisoner is confined, shall be punished under which section of Indian Penal Code?

A. Section 127

B. Section 128

C. Section 129

D. Section 130 – 141

Answer: C

Q.77) Which Section of the Indian Penal Code defines Act or Omission?

A. Section 31

B. Section 32

C. Section 33

D. Section 34

Answer: C

Q.78) Under Section 64 of the Indian Penal Code, a sentence of imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall:

A. Be concurrent of any other imprisonment

B. Be in excess of any other imprisonment to which an offender has been sentenced

C. Not be in excess of any other imprisonment

D. None of the Above

Answer: B

Q.79) The cardinal principle of Criminal Law Nullum crimen sine lege, nulla poena sine lege means:

A. No crime or punishment can exist without a pre-existing penal law

B. A man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty

C. Ignorance of law is no excuse

D. An act must be accompanied by a criminal intent to constitute an offence

Answer: A

Q.80) A village Vaidya used to successfully operate wounds with shaving blade. Victim who was suffering from piles was operated with shaving blade by the Vaidya. Due to profound bleeding, the victim died and the Vaidya was prosecuted for causing death of the victim. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code Vaidya can be defended?

A. Section 87

B. Section 88

C. Section 89

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.81) In which one of the following circumstances, the right of private defence of the body extends to causing death?

A. Reasonable apprehension to cause simple hurt

B. Reasonable apprehension to cause simple theft

C. Reasonable apprehension of causing wrongful restraint

D. An act of throwing or administering acid of of such an attempt that reasonably causes apprehension of grievous hurt

Answer: D

Q.82) X’, a doctor, informs his patent ‘Y’ that he has cancer which is in its last stage. ‘X’ requests ‘Y’ to arrange his family affairs as he cannot survive for more than a/couple of weeks. ‘Y’ dies because of shock on hearing this. ‘X’ is:

A. Guilty of murder as he knew that such a disclosure will cause death

B. Guilty of causing death by negligence

C. Not guilty since communication was made in good faith for the benefit of ‘Y’

D. Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder as he knew that such disclosure is likely to cause death

Answer: C

Q.83) For abetment by conspiracy:

A. A mere agreement between two or more persons to do an unlawful act is enough.

B. Some act or illegal omission must take place in pursuance of an engagement between two or more persons to do an unlawful act.

C. There must be an intentional aid by one person to another for the doing of an offence.

D. One person must instigate the other for the commission of an offence.

Answer: B

Q.84) Whoever, wages war against the Government of India or attempts to wage such war shall be punished with:

A. Imprisonment up to 14 years with fine.

B. Death or imprisonment of life with fine.

C. Imprisonment up to 10 years with fine.

D. Imprisonment up to 7 year with fine.

Answer: B

Q.85) Harbouring a deserter is punishable under Indian Penal Code in:

A. Section 133

B. Section 134

C. Section 135

D. Section 136

Answer: D

Q.86) Public servant framing incorrect record or writing with intent to save person from punishment or property from forfeiture shall be punished under Indian Penal Code in:

A. Section 215

B. Section 216

C. Section 217

D. Section 218

Answer: D

Q.87) A’ the landlord, knowing of the commission of a murder within the limits of his estate wilfully misinforms the Magistrate of the district that the death has occurred because of an asthma attack followed with an attack of epilepsy. In such a situation ‘A’ is:

A. Liable for no offence

B. Liable for the offence punishable under Section 177 Indian Penal Code

C. Liable for the offence punishable under Section 193 Indian Penal Code

D. Liable for the offence punishable under Section 196 Indian Penal Code

Answer: B

Q.88) Violation of condition of remission of punishment has been given under Indian Penal Code in:

A. Section 227

B. Section 228

C. Section 229

D. Section 230

Answer: A

Q.89) A, being legally bound to appear before a District Judge, as a witness, in obedience to a summons issued by that District Judge intentionally omits to appear. A has committed the offence under:

A. Section 174 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 174A Indian Penal Code

C. Section 175 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 176 Indian Penal Code

Answer: A

Q.90) A person resisting or obstructing the lawful apprehension of himself for any offence with which he is charged or of which he has been convicted; or escaping or attempting to escape from legal custody is punishable under:

A. Section 224 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 225 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 226 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 227 Indian Penal Code

Answer: A

Q.91) X’ puts gold coins into a box belonging to Z, with intention that they may found in that box, and that this circumstance may cause Z to be convicted of theft. What offence X committed under Indian Penal Code, 1860?

A. Fabricating false evidence

B. Giving false evidence

C. Committing abetment of theft

D. Committing cheating

Answer: A

Q.92) A, knowing that B has murdered Z, assists B to hide the body with the intention of screening B from punishment. Under Indian Penal Code, A is liable to:

A. Imprisonment of either description for seven years and to fine also

B. Imprisonment for life

C. Imprisonment of either description for twelve years and to fine also

D. Imprisonment of either description for ten years and to fine also

Answer: A

Q.93) Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, what must be the age of a minor with regard to the offence of kidnapping from lawful guardianship?

A. Under sixteen years of age male or under eighteen years of age female

B. Under eighteen years of age or under twenty one years of age female

C. Under twenty years of age male or under twenty one years of age female

D. Under eighteen years of age male or under sixteen years of age female

Answer: A

Q.94) Attempt to commit robbery is punishable under:

A. Section 393 Indian Penal Code

B. Section 394 Indian Penal Code

C. Section 395 Indian Penal Code

D. Section 396 Indian Penal Code

Answer: A

Q.95) Which of the following sections under Indian Penal Code makes “throwing acid or attempting acid attack” punishable?

A. Section 326B

B. Section 322B

C. Section 321B

D. Section 319B

Answer: A

Q.96) A crime is an act or an omission in respect of which legal punishment may be inflicted on the person who is in default either by acting or omitting to act.’ Who gave this definition?

A. Blackstone

B. Stephen

C. Pound

D. Austin

Answer: B

Q.97) Ignorantia facti excusat maxim means:

A. Mistake of law is excused

B. Ignorance of facts is an excuse

C. Ignorance of law is not an excuse

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.98) Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the nature of criminal attempt?

A. Criminal attempt is the direct movement towards the Commission of the offence after the preparations are made

B. Criminal attempt is an intentional preparatory action which fails in object

C. An act which is done intentionally in attempting the commission of an offence

D. When commission of an act done intentionally is successful, it is criminal attempt

Answer: D

Q.99) Abetment of an offence is:

A. Always an offence

B. May be an offence depending on the circumstances but not always

C. Never an offence

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.100) Which of the following is essential of an offence under Section 114 of the Indian Penal Code?

A. There was an abetment by accused

B. The act was actually committed in pursuance of abetment

C. The accused was present while the act was being committed

D. All of the above

Answer: D

For more Indian Penal Code MCQs (1000+ IPC MCQs) with solutions and explanations visit Law Aspirants. Click here for the Indian Penal Code Test Series.

Review your understanding of Indian Penal Code with Test Series containing high-quality MCQs.

Also, master law subjects and prepare with the “Mega test Series”. Ideal for the judiciary and every law exam with core and minor law subjects. Click here for the Mega Test Series

Important Links

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

Law Aspirants: Ultimate Test Prep Destination



Source link

Leave a Reply

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *


*