Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims

Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims


Constitutional Law – Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims

A ready compilation of 100 Constitutional Law MCQs for ease and regularity of practice to enhance students’ general understanding of the subject and boost their preparation by familiarising them with questions similar to the exam pattern of popular law and judiciary exams.

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Constitutional Law MCQs

Q.1) Which one of the following sets of Bills is Presented to the Parliament along with the Budget?

A. Direct taxes bill and Indirect taxes bill

B. Contingency Bill and Appropriation Bill

C. Finance Bill and Appropriation Bill

D. Finance Bill and Contingency Bill

Answer: C

Q.2) In which article of the Constitution of India has the provision of Joint Sitting of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha been provided?

A. Article 101

B. Article 108

C. Article 133

D. Article 102

Answer: B

Q.3) Article 14 of the Indian Constitution does not prohibit:

A. Class legislation

B. Special treatment to an individual

C. Treatment of unequal at an equal footing

D. Reasonable classification

Answer: D

Q.4) In which one of the following cases, has the Supreme Court observed that judicial review is a basic structure of the Constitution?

A. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

B. S.P. Mittal v. Union of India

C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

D. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India

Answer: D

Q.5) Which case is related to the implementation of the law against female foeticide?

A. Parents Association v. UOI

B. Madhu Kishwar v. State of Bihar

C. CEHAT v. UOI

D. Nishi Maghu v. State of J&K

Answer: C

Q.6) Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) An ordinary Bill can only originate in council of states

(b) A Bill pending in House of people shall not lapse by reason of the prorogation of the House

(c) A Bill pending in the council of state which has not been passed by the House of people shall not lapse on a dissolution of the House of the people

(d) A Bill pending in the House of people shall not lapse by reason of the dissolution of the House

A. (a) and (b) are correct

B. (b) and (c) are correct

C. (a) and (d) are correct

D. (b) and (d) are correct

Answer: B

Q.7) Which of the following cases is not related to Parliamentary privileges?

A. M.S.M. Sharma v. Sri Krishna Sinha

B. State of Karnataka v. Union of India

C. Jatish Chandra Ghose v. Harisadhan Mukherjee

D. State of Tamil Nadu v. K. Shyam Sunder

Answer: D

Q.8) Every proclamation of emergency under Article 352 shall be laid before each house of Parliament:

A. Within one month

B. Within two months

C. Within six months

D. Within six weeks

Answer: A

Q.9) The 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978:

A. Amended Article 32

B. Deleted Article 31 and introduced Article 300A

C. Deleted Article 32 from Part III of the Constitution

D. Introduced a new Article 300 in the Constitution

Answer: B

Q.10) How many States are required to ratify certain Amendments to the Constitution?

A. Not less than half the number

B. Three-fourths of the member

C. At least 10 states

D. All states in some cases

Answer: A

Q.11) What are the powers of the Rajya Sabha regarding the Money Bill? The House:

A. Can amend them

B. Can reject them

C. Can withhold them for 14 days to make recommendations

D. Has no power over Money Bills

Answer: C

Q.12) In which case, the Supreme Court declared that a Constituent Assembly should be convened to amend the fundamental rights?

A. A.K. Gopalan’s case

B. Golaknath’s case

C. Maneka Gandhi’s case

D. Kesavananda Bharati’s case

Answer: B

Q.13) The power of Parliament of India to amend the Constitution as a Constituent power was inserted in Article 368 of the Constitution of India by:

A. 1st Amendment, 1951

B. 24th Amendment, 1971`

C. 26th Amendment, 1971

D. 42nd amendment, 1976

Answer: B

Q.14) Every proclamation issued under Article 360 shall be:

A. Laid before each house of the Parliament

B. Laid only before the Lok Sabha

C. Mere Proclamation will suffice

D. All of these

Answer: A

Q.15) Which of the following Amendments banned the floor crossing in Parliament?

A. 42nd

B. 44th

C. 52nd

D. 53rd

Answer: C

Q.16) The Parliament becomes competent to make law on a matter enumerated in the state list only if the:

A. Council of States passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter

B. Council of States and House of the People, both passes a resolution that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter

C. President gives the prior permission for such legislation

D. Speaker of the House of the People in consultation with Chairman of the Council of State gives the prior permission for such legislation

Answer: A

Q.17) The quorum for Joint Sitting of the Indian Parliament is:

A. One-twelfth of the total number of members of the House

B. One-sixth of the total number of members of the House

C. One-tenth of the total number of members of the House

D. Two-third of the total number of members of the House

Answer: C

Q.18) Article 16(1) of the Constitution incorporates the concept of:

A. Distributive justice

B. Numerical equality

C. Equality by results

D. Equality of opportunity

Answer: D

Q.19) Right to freedom of religion cannot be restricted on the ground of:

A. Morality

B. Public order

C. Health

D. Security of state

Answer: D

Q.20) Which writ can be issued when the appointment is contrary to the statutory provisions?

A. Mandamus

B. Certiorari

C. Quo warranto

D. Prohibition

Answer: C

Q.21) Under which Article, the prime minister is duty bound to furnish information to the president?

A. Article 75

B. Article 77

C. Article 78

D. Article 79

Answer: C

Q.22) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

A. The Election Commissioner can not be removed from their office except on recommendations by the Chief Election Commissioner

B. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other ‘Election Commissioners, the matter is decided by the Law Commission

C. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers

D. The term of office of an Election Commissioner is six years from the date he assumes office or till the day he attains the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier

Answer: B

Q.23) Panchayati Raj was introduced in the country in:

A. 1957

B. 1952

C. 1951

D. 1959

Answer: D

Q.24) Which of the following statements is/are True?

A. Disputes related to election of a President are decided by the Supreme Court.

B. Disputes related to vacancy in the electoral college are settled by the Election Commission.

C. In case the election of a President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by a President before the date of such decision of the court get invalidated.

D. President orders elections to the Parliament when its term is over.

Answer: A

Q.25) Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the:

A. Government of India Act, 1935

B. Minto Morley Reforms

C. Independence Act, 1947

D. Constitution of India

Answer: D

Q.26) Which one of the following is the largest (area wise) Lok Sabha constituency?

A. Kangra

B. Kach

C. Ladakh

D. Bhilwara

Answer: C

Q.27) A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period:

A. Not exceeding six months

B. Not exceeding two years

C. Not exceeding one year

D. Of unlimited time

Answer: C

28) The Supreme Court was established in:

A. 1950

B. 1949

C. 1962

D. 1980

Answer: A

Q.29) Which of the following is not a fundamental duty?

A. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag

B. To promote harmony and brotherhood

C. To uphold and protect the sovereignty

D. To abolish titles except military and academic

Answer: D

Q.30) Who among the following considered the Right to Constitutional Remedies to be the heart and soul of the Constitution?

A. Rajendra Prasad

B. BR Ambedkar

C. Jawaharlal Nehru

D. Sardar Patel

Answer: B

Q.31) In which year was the first amendment to the Constitution effected?

A. 1950

B. 1952

C. 1951

D. 1953

Answer: C

Q.32) Which of the following is not constituted under the Constitutional provisions?

A. Finance Commission

B. Inter-State Commission

C. Planning Commission

D. Scheduled Caste Commission

Answer: C

Q.33) The Eighth Schedule of the Constitution provides for:

A. Panchayat Raj

B. Anti Defection

C. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations

D. Official Languages

Answer: D

Q.34) Who appoints the judicial officers of the subordinate judiciary other than the district judges?

A. Union Public Service Commission

B. State Public Service Commission

C. Governor in accordance with the rules made by him in consultation with the High Court and State Public Service Commission

D. Governor in consultation with the High Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to such State

Answer: C

Q.35) Supreme Court Rules, 2013 have been framed under which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

A. Article 136

B. Article 142

C. Article 141

D. Article 145

Answer: B

Q.36) Which of the following is the first case in which the Supreme Court has exercised its advisory jurisdiction?

A. In re Berubari

B. In re Sea Customs Act

C. In re Delhi Laws Act

D. In re Kerala Education Bill

Answer: C

Q.37) For negating the mandate of which Constitutional Provision, the Supreme Court of India has held the Illegal Migrants Act, 1983 as unconstitutional?

A. Article 249

B. Article 355

C. Article 11

D. Article 359

Answer: B

Q.38) The concept of Passive Euthanasia has been carved from which Article?

A. Article 21

B. Article 20

C. Article 22

D. Article 23

Answer: A

Q.39) Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were deleted and Article 300-A was inserted by the following Constitutional Amendment Act?

A. 25th

B. 44th

C. 38th

D. 42nd

Answer: B

Q.40) In which of the following cases the amendment in Article 31C, which gave primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights, was declared ultra vires and void?

A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. Minerva Mills v. UOI

C. M.K. Rai v. UOI

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.41) The Theory of Laissez Faire was invented by:

A. Marques

B. Adam Smith

C. Marshall

D. Laski

Answer: B

Q.42) The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the Constitution:

A. By a majority vote

B. By a two-thirds majority

C. By consensus

D. Unanimously

Answer: C

Q.43) Which of the following Amendments is related to G.S.T.?

A. 97th

B. 98th

C. 100th

D. 101st

Answer: D

Q.44) In which Article of the Constitution of India, provision has been made for the “Finance Commission” ?

A. Article 366 (12)

B. Article 280

C. Article 265

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.45) Which of the following cases is associated with the issue of ‘domicile’ in the State concerned for getting elected to the Council of States?

A. Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India

B. Kuldip Nayar v. Union of India

C. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India

D. Satwant Singh v. Asst. Passport Officer

Answer: B

Q.46) Article 371 E of the Constitution deals with:

A. Establishment of Central University in Andhra Pradesh

B. Special provisions with respect to the State of Sikkim

C. Special provision with respect to State of Mizoram

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.47) The powers of the Election Commission are given in which of the following Articles of the Constitution?

A. Article 286

B. Article 356

C. Article 324

D. Article 382

Answer: C

Q.48) Law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all the courts within the territory of India is given under which Article?

A. Article 140

B. Article 141

C. Article 143

D. Article 144

Answer: B

Q.49) Which of the following items comes under the Concurrent List of the Constitution?

A. Inter-state rivers

B. Trade unions

C. Citizenship

D. Treasure trove

Answer: B

Q.50) The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive, in terms of Article:

A. Article 48

B. Article 49

C. Article 50

D. Article 51

Answer: C

Q.51) A device to obtain the opinion of the people on an important public issue, when that issue has not been passed by the Legislature of the State, is known as:

A. Plebiscite

B. Referendum

C. Self-determination

D. Mandate

Answer: A

Q.52) How many languages have been originally listed in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

A. 18

B. 14

C. 25

D. 15

Answer: B

Q.53) The Supreme Court of India has evolved curative petition in case of:

A. Rameshwar Prasad v. Union of India

B. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Sec. Bihar

C. M.K. Rai v. UOI

D. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra

Answer: D

Q.54) Whom shall the reports of the Comptroller & Auditor-General of India relating to the accounts of Unions be submitted?

A. President of India

B. Prime Minister of India

C. Lok Sabha

D. Rajya Sabha

Answer: A

Q.55) The conditions of service and tenure of the Election Commissioner is prescribed by:

A. The Constitution

B. Parliament

C. The President

D. Governor

Answer: B

Q.56) The Attorney General of India has the right to audience in:

A. Any High Court

B. Supreme Court

C. Any Sessions Court

D. Any Court of law within the territory of India

Answer: D

Q.57) The Electorate means:

A. Those people who do not have the right to elect their representatives

B. All the citizens who possess the right to vote and elect their representatives in an election

C. Those people who have the right to be elected

D. Those people who have the right to live in a country

Answer: B

Q.58) Power of the Supreme Court to review its own judgment is provided under:

A. Article 137

B. Article 138

C. Article 139

D. Article 140

Answer: A

Q.59) Which of the following statements is/are not violative of the principle of federalism?

A. The President of India takes over the administration of provinces under emergency

B. The Parliament of India has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated in the Concurrent list of State list

C. The distribution of powers between the Union and provinces is done through three different lists enumerated in the Constitution of India

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.60) The State of Jammu and Kashmir was accorded special status under:

A. Article 356 of the Constitution

B. Article 370 of the Constitution

C. Article 356 and 370 of the Constitution

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.61) Membership of the Legislative Assembly can vary between 60 and 500, but the exception to this rule is/are found in:

A. Puducherry

B. Mizoram

C. Goa

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.62) Under the provisions of Article 200 of the Constitution of India the Governor of a state may:

A. Withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the state legislature.

B. Reserve the Bill passed by the state legislature for consideration of President

C. Return the Bill, other than a money Bill for reconsideration-of the legislature

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.63) The rules for regulating the practice and procedure of the Supreme Court under Article 145 are made by the:

A. President of India

B. Supreme Court with the approval of the President of India

C. Parliament alone

D. Supreme Court in consultation with Parliament

Answer: B

Q.64) Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India may be enlarged by:

A. Parliament

B. President

C. President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

D. Union Council of Minister in consultation with the Chief Justice of India

Answer: A

Q.65) The number of seats in Vidhan Sabha is :

A. To be not more than five hundred and not less than 60

B. To be not more than 500 and not less than 60 but an exception is recognised in the case of one State which has only 32 seats

C. To be not more than 600 and not less than 500

D. Varies from Vidhan Sabha to Vidhan Sabha

Answer: B

Q.66) The Chief Minister of a State:

A. Is elected by the Legislative Assembly

B. Appoints the members of the Council of Ministers

C. Advise the governor on the appointment of ministers

D. Determines the salaries of Council of Ministers

Answer: C

Q.67) Which of the following is/are true regarding the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?

A. Recommended establishment of a three-tier Panchayati Raj system.

B. Establishment of scheme of democratic decentralisation

C. District collector should be the chairman of the Zila parishad

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q.68) Election to constitute a Panchayat should be completed before:

A. Expiration of 6 months from the date of its dissolution

B. Expiration of 3 months from the date of its dissolution

C. Expiration of 1 year from the date of its dissolution

D. Expiration of 2 months from the date of its dissolution

Answer: A

Q.69) Who elects the Vice-President?

A. The same electoral college which elects the President

B. Members of the Rajya Sabha

C. An electoral college consisting of members of Parliament

D. Members of Parliament at a joint Meeting

Answer: C

Q.70) The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from:

A. The President of India

B. The Parliament of India

C. The Prime Minister of India

D. The Union Finance Minister

Answer: B

Q.71) A Bill for alteration of boundaries of States shall not be introduced in the Parliament without the recommendation of:

A. The presiding officers of both Houses of Parliament

B. The legislature of the States concerned

C. Supreme Court

D. President

Answer: D

Q.72) The first woman Governor of a State in free India was:

A. Sarojini Naidu

B. Sucheta Kripalani

C. Indira Gandhi

D. Vijaya Laxmi Pandit

Answer: A

Q.73) If in an election to a State Legislative Assembly, the candidate who is declared elected loses his deposit, it means that:

A. The polling was very poor

B. The election was for a multi-member constituency

C. The elected candidate’s victory over his nearest rival was very marginal

D. A very large number of candidates contested the election

Answer: D

Q.74) Who appoints the Lt. Governor of Jammu and Kashmir?

A. Chief Minister

B. Chief Justice

C. President

D. Prime Minister

Answer: C

Q.75) The Legislative Council in a State can be created or disbanded by the:

A. State Legislative Assembly alone

B. Parliament alone

C. Parliament on recommendation of the State Legislature

D. President on recommendation of the Governor

Answer: C

Q.76) Who among the following is a legal advisor of the State Government as provided by the Constitution?

A. Public Prosecutor

B. Solicitor General

C. Advocate General

D. Attorney General

Answer: C

Q.77) Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

A. Habeas Corpus : Issued only to the State

B. Mandamus : Issued to public servant

C. Quo-warranto : Issued to subordinate courts

D. Prohibition : Issued to private individuals

Answer: B

Q.78) Which Article says, ‘No child below the age of 14 years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or any hazardous employment?

A. Article 24

B. Article 45

C. Article 25

D. Article 23

Answer: A

Q.79) Which of the following cases relates to anti-strike verdict?

A. People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India, 2003

B. Communist Party of India v. Bharat Kumar, 1998

C. T.K. Rangarajan vs Government Of Tamil Nadu & Others, 2003

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.80) One of the remedies for the false imprisonment or detention is:

A. Prohibition

B. Habeas corpus

C. Mandamus

D. Certiorari

Answer: B

Q.81) A British citizen staying in India cannot claim the right to:

A. Freedom of trade and profession

B. Equality before law

C. Protection of life and personal liberty

D. Freedom of religion

Answer: A

Q.82) Forcible conversions infringe which of the following rights guaranteed under Article 25?

A. Freedom of conscience

B. Right to Profess

C. Right to Practise

D. Right to Propagate

Answer: A

Q.83) The doctrine of Double Jeopardy in Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India means:

A. No one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence

B. One can be tried several times for the same offence

C. Punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision

D. One can be tried more than once but punished only once

Answer: A

Q.84) The right against self-incrimination is guaranteed to:

A. A witness

B. An accused

C. Any person

D. None of the above

Answer: B

Q.85) Who acted as Prime Minister of India for 12 days on the death of Jawaharlal Nehru:

A. Morarji Desai

B. Indira Gandhi

C. Gulzarilal Nanda

D. Lal Bahadur Shastri

Answer: C

Q.86) Which of the following rejected the idea of making voting compulsory?

A. K.M. Munshi

B. Jawaharlal Nehru

C. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

D. Mahatma Gandhi

Answer: C

Q.87) Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?

A. Right to strike

B. Right to equality

C. Right to freedom of religion

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.88) Which of the following qualifications is not essential for election as President of India?

A. A citizen of India

B. Not less than 35 years of age

C. Qualified for election as member of the Lok Sabha

D. A member of the Lok Sabha

Answer: D

Q.89) By which Constitutional amendment, Article 51A(k), which provides for the eleventh duty of a citizen was added?

A. The Constitution (92nd Amendment) Act

B. The Constitution (91st Amendment) Act

C. The Constitution (85th Amendment) Act

D. The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act

Answer: D

Q.90) In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘strike’ by lawyers is illegal and unethical and infringes the Fundamental Rights of litigants for speedy trial?

A. Dr. B.L. Wadhera v. NCT of Delhi

B. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

C. Lily Thomas v. Union of India

D. Indira Sawhney v. Union of India

Answer: A

Q.91) Before assuming office as the President of the Republic, Dr Rajendra Prasad was the:

A. President of the Constituent Assembly of India

B. Vice President

C. Interim Prime Minister

D. Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent Assembly

Answer: A

Q.92) There are two classes of advocates in India:

A. Advocates and Senior Advocates

B. Solicitors and Barrister

C. Government Advocates and Private Advocates

D. None of the above

Answer: A

Q.93) Which Article of the constitution mentions the Union List, State List and Concurrent List?

A. Article 244

B. Article 245

C. Article 246

D. All of the above

Answer: C

Q.94) Right to Vote is a:

A. Statutory Right

B. Fundamental Right

C. Constitutional Right

D. None of the above

Answer: C

Q.95) Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

A. Presidential Government

B. Parliamentary Government

C. Federal Government

D. Independence of Judiciary

Answer: A

Q.96) Secularism means:

A. Suppression of all religions

B. Freedom of worship to minorities

C. Separation of religion from state

D. A system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith

Answer: D

Q.97) Mark the correct response:

A. It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate all decision of the Council of Ministers to the President, whenever he requires

B. The Prime Minister need not communicate all decisions to President

C. It is not obligatory on the part of Prime Minister to communicate the decision to President

D. The President cannot compel the Prime Minister to give the information he has

Answer: A

Q.98) Railways is a subject in the:

A. Concurrent List

B. Union List

C. State List

D. Residuary List

Answer: B

Q.99) Which of the following States and the year of their creation is/are incorrectly matched?

A. Andhra Pradesh: 1958

B. Maharashtra: 1960

C. Arunachal Pradesh: 1987

D. Goa: 1987

Answer: A

Q.100) Final judgments or orders delivered or passed by civil courts in any part of the territory of India shall be capable of execution anywhere within the territory according to the law is provided under which article?

A. Article 261(3)

B. Article 260(2)

C. Article 262(3)

D. Article 260(3)

Answer: A

For more Constitutional Law MCQs with solutions and explanations, Click Here for Constitutional Law Test Series

Review your understanding of Constitutional Law with Test Series containing high-quality MCQs.

Also, master law subjects and prepare with the “Mega test Series”. Ideal for the judiciary and every law exam with core and minor law subjects. Click Here for Mega Test Series

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